Do people always have self-ownership? When and how do they acquire it? Do parents ever own their children?
These are the questions I have been wrestling with lately, and the problems I perceive arising from the various possibilities. Maybe you can help me come up with some solutions for a free society.
- Is there a single age of sudden self-ownership that everyone always attains? e.g. 18 or 21 years?
Problems:
1. It’s arbitrary, and it applies a single standard to different people. One does not change dramatically on any particular birthday anniversary, nor is everyone of the same age of the same maturity. The only birthday on which there’s dramatic change of a kind that could, to my mind, potentially justify the sudden recognition of full self-ownership, as opposed to all days before, is the day someone is actually born; when they no longer share their mother’s body. Is the physical separation from the mother’s body sufficient? Is abortion allowable on the basis of the foetus not having self-ownership? I’ve read Block, and although it seems to be easily refuted, he provides an alternative “eviction” justification for abortion. He clearly assumes the foetus to have self-ownership.
My refutation of Block’s eviction justification for abortion goes something like this, if you’re curious. If I take you on a ride in my helicopter, is it not murder if I evict you at 5000ft? In all cases of pregnancy, other than those resulting from rape, the parents voluntarily consent to expose themselves to the risk of becoming pregnant. No one consents to be conceived, carried and born into this world, as far as anyone I know can seem to recall. Even with regards to rape, if someone forced you to take an innocent 3rd party up to 5000ft in your helicopter, and then jumped out with the only parachute, would it not be murder if you evicted the 3rd party before landing the aircraft? (I admit that a potential lifeboat scenario exists where the pregnancy threatens the life of the mother, which is the only situation in which I’m uncomfortably “pro-choice” regarding abortion.)
2. It’s a special case of property treatment. In no other situation would it be justifiable for someone to lose title without their consent, except in situations where it is necessary to compensate one of their victims for a tort. What if the parents don’t want to give up ownership of their child on one of the child’s birthday anniversaries? Who has standing to force them to, and why?
- Is there a case-by-case age of majority, which may differ between individuals?
3. Who gets to decide, and on what basis? Should it happen if and when the parents unilaterally decide to emancipate or abandon their child? Should someone make a judgement about whether the child is capable of supporting themselves, as Rothbard suggested? If so, who exactly, and on what basis would they derive their authority? Wouldn’t it be a subjective valuation, and uncertain speculation, no matter who made it? It can’t logically be the child who decides, if they don’t yet have self-ownership - if my pig escapes, it does not somehow acquire self-ownership, no matter how well it can survive on its own. What if the parents never make the decision to emancipate or abandon their child? Problem 2 still seems to apply – you can’t force someone to give up their property if they don’t want to. What if they abandon the child as an infant, and she’s adopted? Do the adoptive parents acquire ownership over her, based on their unilateral, subjective evaluation that she’s not yet ready to sustain herself? What if she were emancipated as a teenager, or even older, and someone decided that this was actually an abandonment, because they don’t think she can yet sustain herself ? May they lasso her, and claim ownership over her on this basis?
4. What if the parents decide that it is impossible for their child, or anyone else, to sustain themselves in a voluntary context, so they hand over ownership of their children and descendants, in perpetuity, to a state? If one’s parents, or parents’ parents, ever decided that the state was necessary – if they ever consented to the social contract, as it were – on what basis can one ever claim self-ownership? In short, if one is directly descended from even a single statist, how can one justify being a libertarian who believes in self-ownership?
5. If parents ever own their children, couldn’t they justifiably batter their children, forcibly engage in sex with them, kill them, or sell them into chattel slavery for others to do these things, all on a whim? It’s all very well to say that I can shun someone if I don’t approve of their behaviour, but if I have self-ownership, then I have a right to associate with whoever I like, to the precise extent that I like, for whatever reasons I like. I could shun you if I didn’t like your hairstyle, your accent, or if I simply wanted to be alone for a while. I could justifiably shun you for things which are not unlawful, for which I could not justify using force against you for the purposes of preventing your behaviour, and for which I could not justifiably demand compensation. If someone has their children chained up in their basement, starving, living in their own filth, and subject to daily beatings and sodomies with an iron poker, don’t you kind of sort of want to be able to step in and justifiably stop that from happening, as you could if it were an adult who had not consented to such an arrangement? Why in the name of all that desires freedom would you want a situation where attacking someone your own size, or even larger, is a crime, but attacking a defenceless child the same way is not? To suggest that one would be a criminal for intervening to remove those hypothetical children from their parents’ clutches, by force if necessary, strikes me as utterly insane. If that’s morality, go ahead and send me to Hell right now. It would entail less suffering than living in this awful place.
- Do people always have self-ownership? Is it synonymous with a person being described as a person?
6. This would mean that the initiation of force against a child is always unlawful. “Corporal punishment” would be always be unlawful, no matter how mild, as would be the commission of fraud against a child – it would be unlawful to induce a child to act by way of intentionally misinforming them. Technically, you could not even use tales about Santa Claus to induce good behaviour, unless you genuinely believed in Santa Claus yourself. In theory, a child should be able to sue and claim compensation for such violations of their self-ownership. This would entail a radical change in what is considered by most people today to be appropriate parenting. In terms of negative reinforcement, a parent’s ultimate power would be a variation of “my roof, my rules – if you don’t like it, leave” - their power to unilaterally abandon their child.
7. Parental consent would not always be required in place of, or in supplement to, consent by the child. This has dire ramifications. If a child consensually acquired a tattoo, contrary to their parents’ wishes, would the parent have any recourse against the tattoo artist? Maybe a decent tattoo artist wouldn’t do it without parental consent. Maybe you could tell all and sundry about how disreputable he is to tattoo a ten-year-old without parental consent, and hope this would result in his business and person being shunned. But could you justifiably claim compensation from him, or use reciprocal force of any kind against him? I don’t think so. He didn’t use force against your property.
Far more worrying than that, consensual sexual relations between people of almost any age would never be unlawful. The ramifications here are stupendous to ponder. It’s trite to say that below a certain level of maturity, people don’t have the capacity to consent, but what age is that, exactly, and who gets to decide? If the same ten-year-old from above consents to sex instead of getting a tattoo, does the parent have any recourse against the 3rd party that he wouldn’t have against the tattoo artist? If so, how? He didn’t use force against your property.
8. If children had a right to associate freely, in accordance with their self-ownership, it would mean that a child could leave their parents on a whim, and the parents could not use force against them or anyone else to regain their custody. Hence, if a child wanted to leave their parents, and a 3rd-party was willing, they could essentially choose to become the adoptive child of someone else, and their biological parents would have no say in the matter. Tying in to problem 7, if a child of any age wanted to leave their parents and enter into a marriage or other kind of sexual relationship with a consenting 3rd-party, at any age, the parents could do nought to stop it besides shun them and complain about it to others.
9. If parents don’t own their children, they need some other, relative, property claim to justify their guardianship status over anyone else’s when the child is indisputably too young, or otherwise unable to give their own consent. This is not a major problem, as far as I can see. If my (hypothetical) spouse were to fall into a coma, I get automatic next-of-kin status without anyone suggesting that I own them. It’s simply presumed that I have been placed in the best position to execute decisions regarding their body, while they are unable to.
Sorry for the long read, but you folks are very smart, and I don’t know what to think about this all any more. I sometimes hear self-proclaimed libertarians claim that they own their children, and I think wtf, these hypocrites claim self-ownership too? On what basis? Not that the alternative ramifications aren’t mind-boggling, though they still seem preferable to me. Any help?