I came across a couple of articles in the New York Times and other sources that showed a disconection between raises in productivity and wages.
e.g.:
In THIS article they argue that wages and productivity correlation are based on union’s pressure and has nothing to do with markets.
Austrian theory states that an increase of the capital available, productivity increases and also wages (or at least you can buy more goods with the same amount of money).
How can you explain this after watching the graph?