Property was adopted by man for the aforementioned reasons, it is the only possible way for man to effectively deal with scarcity. What’s not “solid” about that?
Because private property brings more prosperity than any other system.
Dang, I had no sources to link Arete and eudaimonia, but merely went on the idea! Therefore I would say the Metaphysics of Quality has much to do with this. Pirsig in Zen and the Art of Motorcycle Maintenance traces quality back to Greece and arete.
If man ‘adopted’ property because it was useful, could he not also do away with it? What if the majority decides that it’s not useful anymore? Isn’t that less of a right, and more of a privledge?
It all feels too utilitarian. Maybe i’m just not getting it though. ; )
I didn’t know that. If none of the money was my money, in this State, could I still sue her if she withdrew it all for reasons that have nothing to do with our livelihood, to use your example, if she gave it all away to somebody she was seeing outside the marriage? Or would some of that money have to be mine before I could sue and have a chance of winning?
Depends. If the account was only ever deposited into by her then some states could consider it a seperate, personal account; especially if she owned the account before getting marriage. I don’t have specific knowledge, though.
Now, if one spouse worked and one didn’t. Then the idea that its a separate account wouldn’t float.
Pre-nups are used to determine what prior owned property stays outside the marriage, so they are particularly common when marrying late in life.
Of course, how the law works today and how it should work are very different. But this is area seems to have remained pretty true to common law.
My point was that joint-bank accounts are not commons that can be looted at will. They must be administered according to the agreement of the relationship (marriage, partnership, etc), and if they are not then the relationship can be ended and the property divided.
So contrary to Juan, a contract can own(that is, control) property.
Well, I can just repeat that the contract is an agreement between two people (in this case) so whatever terms are in the agreement came from these two people, which means ultimately they(partners) are ‘controlling’ the property jointly. That doesn’t mean it’s a commons and that any partner can loot it. I never said or implied that.
You all are debating legal definition distinctions between methods of ownership. For example, real estate can be owned ‘as an individual’, ‘jointly’ (married only), ‘as tennants in common’ jointly or severally, or ‘as a corporation’. Let’s look the words up in the dictionary. Much easier.I believe all these forms of interest are for undivided property, that is, each individual, if more than one, owns an unknown geographic interest of some stated percentage, of the whole.
As for ‘ownership by right of use’, different states have different laws, depending on the history of their courts. Suppose you own a piece of vacant land which you purchased in full and improved by putting a road into it. Then you did nothing else for 30 years. You didn’t even visit it. But you did pay all taxes on it and all other assesments.
No suppose that during those 30 years a family of hobo’s moved onto the property and built a house, put in a garden, and lived on the property full time as their primary residence. Do they own a part or all of it by right of use?
I assumed you meant that if one spouse worked and the other didn’t, then the account has money from only one spouse. Yet you say it would not be considered a “separate account”. In natural property whether it’s separate or not wouldn’t matter due to the money is owned by the spouse that worked and earned the money. You say it “wouldn’t float” in the U.S.?
I was making a larger point. If property rights are merely granted to people by society, then its not a right. How can it be? I was under the impression that people were taking a natural rights position on property as opposed to this absurd utilitarian position.
In a free market society that reasons Natural Law, I guess it would depend on how close to the road, meaning, is their house, garden, and living presence disruptive of the road? The road was there first. Historical (also known as traditional) precedence is recognized by Natural Law no matter how long ago the use took place. What was historically used established ownership and this “currently unused” is called savings. It is still the road owners, unless as I was pointing out, the hobo’s moved into virgin land. If they use the road, then the road owner can ask them to pay a toll.