This was something I was thiking about in relation to Supply and Demand graph. Lets say that a given market is about to “start”, with Bob the seller about to supply a stock of 5 apples to a market, with no reservation demand (meaning the supply graph would be vertical). There is a “supreme being” that knows in order for equilibrium to exist, Bob must price his apples at $3. However, lets say that Bob’s entrepreneurship is excellent, and he prices his apples at $2, meaning that there will be a shortage because 7 apples are demanded when only 5 exist at this given time.
Now, in an auctioneering like setting, it would be easy for Bob to see that he has created a shortage because he is seeing bidders wanting to buy seven, and he can quickly acheive equilibrum by raising the price to $3 to alleviate the shortage and sell all of his stock without selling any of his goods underpriced.
However, more commonly, like other suppliers, he runs at store. So the first day of business rolls around and Johnson comes in to buy 2 apples for a price of $2. My question is, with this exchange happening that is clearly below the would be equilibrium price of $3 (without Bob knowing that he has created a shortage yet), do the supply and demand graphs that represent the apples market change, or does the supply and demand graph still reflect a market where at a price of $2, seven apples will be demanded? Does the demand graph change to reflect the fact that someone has purchased two apples already, and the supply graph shift to the left to 3, meaning that there is a new equilibrium price (lets say 3 apples demanded at a price of four) with these new market fundamentals?