Murray Rothbard said that exchange rates tend to equal each other in purchasing power which i agree with. it makes sense.
What I don’t get is how do you explain the phenomenon on cheaper prices in different countries?
If 1 dollar can buy you one carrot in the USA and 2 pounds can buy you the same in England then 1 dollar = 2 pounds.
But if the exchange rates always work like this, how does one get a cheaper price in another country fif the purchasing power of money is retained?