Again, your position(s) can be easily inferred from your incoherent babbling - and I don’t really care what your position is anyway. I remember some months ago you said that you wouldn’t be spending so much time on this forum because there were better places, blah, blah, blah. Too bad you didn’t take your own advice.
I still have yet to see a consistent demonstration of the axiomatic status of self-ownership. Also, private property and non-aggression aren’t axioms, and they wouldn’t be even if self-ownership was; they would be corollaries of self-ownership.
Either there are ’ natural laws’ that can be described as ‘libertarian’ and are in line with no aggression or there are no such laws. The idea that ‘natural law’ can be different from produced LIBERTARIAN law is NONSENSE.
So, you’ve royally failed to show that from “X committing trespassing” it follows that “murder of X is justified.”
Among others, you’ve not dealt with the argument that shows that from your premise (non-proportionality) all sort of absurd consequences follow. I’m sure you know pretty well that such reductio-ad-absurdum proves your reasoning is fallacious.
yes, very good. if we are playing the morality language game, then in that context there is the ‘natural law’ that i specified, which is at root libertarian emphasising as it does private property and non-initiation of aggression.
Being that there are these laws, the produced libertarian laws codified by human beings in the marketplace must necessarily deviate, else they wouldnt be needed. Yet, they remain compatible with natural law since the agents thhat they concern will have volunteered to be governed by them. These Produced laws do not contradict Natural law, they co-exists or take precedence depending on your favoured terminology. This concept of overlaying a more particular law over a general law should be familiar to everyone who has experience law in the real world. given the defacto rules about ‘not hitting people’ boxing in our culture would not exist. It does exist because the participants voluntary agree to abide by a explicit law that supercedes the common law. think on it.
and juan my silly friend!.The consequences of natural law are not absurd they are just not to your liking. a reductio is a powerful argument where you show that various premises are incompatible. the consequences arising from my analysis dont appeal to your taste. i did note this in my text! yet, they do not contradict any of the premises. (or at least have not been shown to). and therefore there is no absurdity under a logical analysis, which here is all that counts.
I want to thank all the guys with kind words about my postings, it means a lot to me, and i’d be happy to collaborate on projects and learn things along the way. I have kind of thrown myself headlong into mises forum debates to meet likeminded people., so its all good. I want to say I have great respect and love for Juan and Giles and BrainPolice for their commitments to liberty and capitalism to the extent they honour and appreciate these things.
That’s what I’ve been saying throughoutthis entire thread: “If we take your argument to its natural conclusion, then basically what you are proposing is basically the law of “what a man can do; what a man can’t do”, and you’re arguing that if they’re on YOUR property without your consent, you basically have the right to exterminate them, which is what pushing YOUR strategy to its logical end implies.”
Sorry, I’m not playing any language game. Rather you are engaging in sophism.
No, you’ve just declared that ‘natural law’ is lines on the ground and the killing in cold blood of any trespasser. Now, try to understand. That’s not a FIRST PRINCIPLE. That’s just a particular MISUSE of a first principle, the NAP. I do find your ideas beyond distasteful, but regardless, your logic is FLAWED.
Sorry my not-so-well-versed-in-logic friend. A reductio-ad-absurdum is not concerned with the incompatibility of various premises. A reduction starts from ONE premise and shows that the premise leads to absurd conclusions, which means the premise is false. Your case.
Were you making any specific point by referencing the article ? Well, interestingly enough it seems that estoppel, which nirgraham invoked actually is to be used against his case…
Neither Stephan Kinsella’s “estoppel” argument, Hans Hoppe’s argumentation ethics, Rand’s survivalism or Stefan Molyneux’s UPB provides a comprehensive proof of individual liberty as an ethical norm.
That being said, Juan brings up a good point: in the quote, Kinsella’s argument only bolsters the proportionality perspective.