i completely appreciate this perspective. Indeed there is a sense in which i feel the issue is moot. since i believe individuals that are broadly anarchist, would , even if they have shuch rights to extreme violence, bind themselves, oblige themselves in explicit behaviour contracts with each other, or by allegiance to market produced legal codes; render such ‘dillema questions’ soluable, by virtue of merely appraising individuals behaviour within the context of a fleshed out body of law (and precedent?).
but what im trying to dig down to, is that, supposing free individuals have not voluntary agreed to abide by specific codes of conduct, to observe social norms. to game theory barter with each other, and set each other permissable levels of unintentional trespass and the like, (in order to better serve their long term self interest.) dont our theories lack something, if they cant describe these moral agents in an enivronment where they have not this legal structure. cant we describe them in a state of raw an-cap, (even if we feel a ‘mature’ ancap to be a greater practical goal to achieve)
in other words, arent we falling into contradiction, if somehow we are unable to say, quite what these free individuals are ‘giving up’ by binding themselves to follow market produced law. E.g. they are either giving up the right to shoot first ask questions later. or they arent as they never could.
and isnt this a big difference. isnt the first case in some way. more impressive, and doesnt the 2nd reveal the lie that there is no functional purpose to institute codes of conduct, as a particular code of conduct is pre-supposed.?