Torsten:
This of course also begs the question: Who has got the RIGHT idea concerning property?
Only when given a set of assumptions, definitons, and rules for knowledge creation can determine things to be right or wrong. I’m a bit of a cultural relativist in that sense. Whether or not property rights require some complex bureaucratic framework or simple infrequent usage of an object is just a matter of opinion.
If we base things on ecological reality, then there are no abstract concepts of property rights without them existing in one’s mind. There is only competition between individuals and species (including the possibility of cooperation, and the emergence of complex mental concepts, or other complex behaviors).
Torsten:
What I also find funny is the common assumption that only whites got their property via violence or “taking it away from someone”.
Care to substantiate that claim?
I kid… Native Americans regularly took “property” from each other probably. There were human afterall! Whether they took it from a population who does not fall under the moniker “Native American” is an interesting question. If there was a “pre-Native American” population whose ancestors are still alive, which the current existing lineage dubbed as “Native American” took the land from, then by my definition the pre-N. A. lineage would be the #1 owners. But if we have no knowledge of those events, they would not be the #2 owners as we have no way to verify that history. In other words humans can only determine ownership based on knowledge of that ownership. However, we may determine ownership incorrectly. But that doesn’t make our determination unjust in the practical sense, but it may be unjust in the universal sense.
gotlucky:
Oh yes it does make it unjust. If you witness the murder of a loved one…
Murder of your loved one is not taking your property, it is a different class of crime. In analyzing theft, I am assuming that the property still exists but has undergone a change of possession. The question is about how to understand the concept of ownership.
gotlucky:
If the just owner cannot be found, then the new non-thief owner is the just owner.
Yes, this is what Rothbard states. I am departing from this somewhat. I am not saying that Rothbard defines just ownership incorrectly, I am modifying his definition. I am postulating that there is a type of justice beyond the action of humans. The original just owner is still the absolute just owner, but the new non-thief owner is the practical just owner. I say this, because practical just ownership is more transient in that it can potentially be ended at anytime in the event that the absolute just owner could possibly make a claim and prove it. Furthermore, it still remains for the phrase “cannot be found” as stated in Rothbard and your quote above to be explicitly defined.
(1) Does it mean the finder or judge or somebody else is required to make an attempt to locate the original owner?
(2) Or does in mean the original owner does not exist (e.g. is dead or on another continent, far away beyond the capability of any known reasonable means of finding)?
(3) Or maybe it means that we know the property is stolen, but simply do not know who it was stolen from?
There could be different ways to define it as well. In the current context option #3 seems to be the most reasonable. In this context, any arbitrary person (except the known thief), can take the property. There are still all sorts of logistical questions about how to justly determine the new owner such as: at what point do we does the property actually become unowned? If it is a small material good, such as a watch, does the non-thief possessor of the watch at the time the knowledge of theft comes to light automatically become the new owner? If the property is a large plot of land, how do we determine who has homesteaded it? Say two people arrive there simultaneously and start building fences on opposite sides and then meet… who has the rightful homestead claim? Or does the NAP require them to split the land exaclty according to the status of their fences at the time of meeting (if a voluntary agreement cannot be worked out)?
I don’t expect answers to these questions to be submitted in this thread. But I assume that logic can be used to improve on the current set of rules.
gotlucky:
If he cannot prove it, then the rest of society has no way to know if his claims are true or false.
It doesn’t matter what society knows. Only the truth of history matters in determining absolute justice. If the truth is that the property was stolen, then he is absolutely justified in taking it back but is not necessarily practically justified in doing so. It can be impractical for the truth to be the standard by which we determine justice, we can usually only be practical, which is not necessarily absolute. He may or may not be legally justified depending on the law you analyze his actions under. You may not like my distinction, and that is fine.
My opinion is that human application of the NAP to the best of our abilities defines practical justice. However, those efforts may or may not meet the higher standard of absolute justice. Afterall, how can we have a court system if we do not believe it serves justice? Are we to stop saying “justice was served”, and instead say “the law was carried out”? Even if the law operates to the best of human ability and in line with the NAP?