I’m trying to understand the difference (if there is one) between Rothbard’s and Hoppe’s views on how to achieve private free market ownership of capital in currently nationalized industries. I’m thinking in particular about ownership of schools and hospitals in the UK.
Rothbard states the following in How and How Not to Desocialize :
Rothbard is talking here about Eastern European and ex-Soviet nations, but makes no indication in this paper (possibly he has elsewhere?) that he would use a different means in the West.
Hoppe agrees with Rothbard’s recommendation for the East, but he says that it is a different issue in the West under social democracy. Where taxpayer money has been used to improve the land (with a school or a hospital), Hoppe says that ownership should be given to taxpayers.
Hoppe explicitly says that the government employees (teachers, doctors, managers, etc), as tax consumers, have far less of a claim for rightful ownership than do (net) tax payers. See Democracy: The God That Failed, p134.
Rothbard rejects returning the capital to citizens in the form of shares:
My question to you all is firstly, have I understood Rothbard’s and Hoppe’s positions correctly, and, if I have, whether or not you support…
- Returning “public” capital to the productive workers in those industries: i.e. government employees. (Rothbard)
- Or returning “public” capital to taxpayers: i.e. not to tax consumers so no government employees. (Hoppe)
… and why.