So I just finished reading Rothbard’s “The Case Against The Fed” and I thought it was good in many ways but lacking in a few areas. There was much more history than I was expecting (which was good) and much less talk about destructive business cycles and their causes than I was expecting and hoping for.
There is one thing in particular that I am confused about and I hope that we can answer it here. So I understand that the austrian theory of the business cycle essentially says that if central bank interest rates are held down below where the market would naturally set them an artificial boom and a bubble will develop. The longer the interest rate is held artificially low - the longer the boom will last and the larger the potential bubble will be. This obviously leads to the inevitable bust that is the cure for the malinvestment that was made during the boom.
My question comes here. Rothbard, after hardly mentioning the austrian theory of the business cycle in his book, says on page 144 that “in addition to reserve requirements and open market operations, there is the Fed’s discount rate, interest rate charged on its loans to the banks. Always of far more symbolic than substantive importance, this control instrument has become trivial, now that banks almost never borrow from the Fed. Instead, they borrow reserves from each other in the overnight “federal funds” market.”
This is the only time that he mentions the interest rate that is set by the Fed. Is it not this “discount rate” that causes the boom and bust cycle of the Fed? Was it not this rate being set too long during the early 2000s that caused the housing bubble? Why does Rothbard brush aside this key interest rate that I thought was of such great importance to the boom bust cycle? Am I misunderstanding something here?
Any thoughts?