Lilburne: Now I’m going off from memory on this, so I could be wrong, but I don’t think that epithet has anything to do with any intellectual revolution. Sargon of Akkad, according to legend, was a royal cupbearer who became king (possibly by killing the former king). “New man” might refer to his being an upstart king. It also might have to do with him being a Semite. The Sumerians were a non-semitic people, but for centuries before Sargon’s rise, Semites were becoming integrated into Sumerian society. It would make sense for these Semites to be called “new men”, and especially for Sargon, the first Semite to rule over Sumerians, to be called a new man.
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I may have made an induction (at this writing I am going from memory as well, if I must I will try to dig up sources at a more convinent time for me) considering a new era of self promoting art and the “ruling the four coners” philosophy that seems prevelant after Sargon, as well as later dynasties using Sargon as an example of a “new man” of non-royal blood who could make his own empire. I am almost certain there are a relativly decent amount of paleo-babylonian inscriptions indicating new ideological ideals of royalty.
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I believe some of the more humble origins of him are from later sources (?), as I do not think any Paleo-Babylonian inscription mentions it.
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The Semetic theory seems plausible as well, as Akkad was semetic. I suppose I was never exposed to that theory (or do not recall it anyway). I did think the Semites were in Mesopotamia (and with some prominence) well before Sargon, though with much less of a conquering spirit.