Saving, Deposit Banking, and Cash Balances

Upon reading 100% Reserve Demand Banking vs Fractional Reserve Banking and inflation the main thread about fractional reserve banking and inflation, I stumbled upon a question relating to 100 reserves and saving, or saving in general. Saving is described as being the same thing as investment since you are freeing up resources to give to someone else in the economy. Increases in cash balances are different because you are holding the money in anticipation or something, waiting to get enough money to invest, and/or are just uncertain like all human beings.(I am right on saving and cash balances being two different things, and “saving”, in the Austrian sense exactly or “equaling” investment right?Meaning in 100% reserves, loan banking is “saving”, while deposit banking “increases in cash balances?”) -see below.

In 100% banking, can “hoarding” and/or “Increases/decreases in cash balances” manifest itself in deposit banking? They seem to be three terms that mean the same thing. Me keeping a big bag of gold under my bed is the same thing as me putting it in a deposit warehouse correct? I guess another way to say it is deposit banking is “hoarding” or “increases cash balances?” But that doesn’t equal “saving/investing” right, because I am not freeing up resources correct?

Thank you to anyone who clearly explains this to me as I am confused and see many people saying different things.

Bump

I guess another way to ask this (and somewhat of another question is) are savings? “Differed consumption?” I see this alot where I look, but then also see Austrian economists say that it isn’t.

For example,

http://www.safehaven.com/article-7785.htm

genuine savings take place when resources are directed from current consumption (present goods) and invested in capital goods (future goods). It can be easily deduced that this process is one of capital accumulation that will eventually bring about a greater flow of consumer goods. This brings us to another fallacy: one that defines savings as deferred consumption. This is truly sloppy thinking. It amounts to saying that because men are human being it must follow that all human beings are men. The error here is the inexcusable one – at least for economists – of confusing the demand to hold money (an increase in cash balances) with the demand for savings. (This guy is an Austrian economist)

So are savings differed consumption, or are they his definition?

Thanks

It seems it is just terminology. By his definition in the first sentence deferred consumption is not saving, it can be hoarding.

Your article is contrary to the paper written by Rothbard that you can find performing a search on Rothbard hoarding. Personally I agree with Rothbard. The decision to defer consumption means that the person is saving their cash for later consumption or for use in riskier investments. Besides any investment begins as deferred consumption in cash.

This may help: Saved cash is deferred consumption where the return on “Risk Free” savings in bank accounts, CDs, government bonds, etc is too small to bother with and the returns on riskier investments do not pay a high enough premium to make the risk worth taking. In other words, the keeping of cash is the individual following their personal risk preferences. The keeping of cash is the individual making a rational investment decision.

Another view is that if an individual turned their large cap equity assets into cash in Feb 2006 and “Hoarded it” then they would have kept all of their money vs a 50% loss in large cap equities.

Hmmm…and I thought that I had it right :(. Is this the link you were talking about? http://mises.org/money/2s9.asp Here I don’t even find the word saving…

Now I’M really confused lol…heres a quote from Rothbard in What has government done with our money?

Another argument holds that the fact that notes and deposits are reddemable on demand is only a kind of accident; that these are merely credit transactions. The depositors or noteholders are simply lending money to the banks, which in turn acts as their agents to channel the moey to business firms. And why repress productive credit? Mises has show, however, the crucial difference between a credit transaction and a claim transaction; credit always involves the purchase of a future good by the creditor in exchange for a present good (money). The creditor gives up a present good in exchange for an IOU for a good coming to him in the future. But a claim-and bank notes or deposists are claims to money-does not involve the creditor’s relinquishing any of the present good. On the contratry the noteholder of deposit-holder still retains his money (the present good) because he has a claim to it, a warehouse receipt which he can redeem at any time he desires. This is the nub of the problem, and this is why fractional-reserve banking creates new money while other credit agencies do not-for warehouse receipts or claims to money funciton on the market as equivilant to standard money itself. To those who persist in believing that the bulk of bank deposits are really saved funds left voluntarily…p162.

Doesn’t this support what I’m saying (not trying to debate or something, but I’m just confused)

any help appreciated.

Bump

Thanks.

Wrong. But the point is, money must be saved before it can be invested. On the other hand, frb fanatics advance the view that money can be both saved and lent/invested AND at the same time be available on demand, as if it was not saved/invested. Amazing isn’t it ?

Which is saving.

Correct. As long as you ‘hoard’ the money you control the resources you saved. As soon as you lend it you transfer control to somebody who would hopefully do something useful with it so that he can pay back interest + principal…

Okay thanks…so saving is just relinquishment of consumption, and can mean “hoarding” or “investing”. Thanks.

But why do Austrians say that investment and savings are always equal? Isn’t this a near impossibllity because tehre will always be a hoard or some idle cash in the economy?

The way I understand it is saving=investment

If there is more saving then investment, then you have hoarding. But if there is more investing then saving, you have the Business Cycle. Could you help explain the quote I listed in my previous post for me, since Rothbard seems to give the opinon that the fact that deposits aren’t savings leads to fractional reserve banking and the Business Cycle Theory.

Just seem a little perplexed on how hoarding helps the pool of saving which businessman get their investments from. People could save but only in hoarding in 100% reserve scenario, leading to no new “pool of savings” for businessman to get their money from. Thanks.

It’s misleading to talk about “putting gold under the bed” since that can be consumption, hoarding or true savings. It depends on the subjective opinions of the individual in question. I don’t consider hoardings to be saving, but many people would disagree with me on this, essentially the individual is merely increasing their demand for cash in the present. Whereas savings implies an increase in demand for cash in the future, and a consequent and necessary decrease in cash holdings in the present. Should I wish to put my money in a demand deposit the money is available to me at all times and therefore I maintain the ability to spend it as I wish.

I’d say that saving is relinquishment of consumption. I don’t see how saving = investing. Also, I don’t see why saving must be referred to as hoarding. Saving is, well, saving.

Do they ? What I think any sensible economist would point out is that investment can only be funded with savings/resources acquired either in the free market, or savigs/resources acquired thru fraud and force. I’d say that in the latter case you have a business cycle since investment is not in line with consumer preference (among other problems).

If there’s more saving than investment then you have saving…

Well, trying to put that in more accurate form…What causes the business cycle is an attempt to make more investments than the amount that could be supported by the ‘real’ pool of savings. So called credit expansion creates duplicated property titles, so people act as if resources are both available for investment and available for consumption, which is, of course, impossible.

Is that so ? Not spending your gold sounds like saving to me. It’s certainly not consumption, and it’s not “hoarding” - What is ‘hoarding’ supposed to mean anyway ? It’s not a technical term.

Idk. I have a bag of potatoes. I can either eat them or save them. There’s nothing terribly subjective about that…

That sounds rather obscure/more complicated than it really is.

Increasing ones cash balance.

It’s not saving anymore than not using your car because you have nowhere to go is saving, it is consumption, your fulfilling your demand for present goods, not future goods.

Not subjective? You can’t be serious.

No, it really isn’t. If you believe it is would you mind elaborating why it is unnecessarily obscure and/ or fallacious.

Really ? Do you mind providing a source stating that hoarding means that ? (it doesn’t)

Nonsense. If I decide to not spend my cash now then I’m deferring consumption, i.e. saving.

And not using my car is indeed saving it. If the car is not used, it won’t wear out and will last longer.

So, not spending cash and saving it, is ‘consumption’. I guess black is white too.

My not eating the potatoes is objectively known as ‘saving’ them. On the other hand eating them is objectively consumption.

Yes:

Source

In any case, it’s a non issue since the definition you are challenging is one I was merely using for purposes of making my posts shorter, but as you wish, I will refrain from using hoarding and use “increasing ones cash balance” instead.

No, you’re not. Now address the car analogy, please.

Yes, and yet I was postulating that the agent in question does not subjectively refrain from using his car in that sense. So your point is not relevant.

You’re begging the question, you’ve yet to prove why it is saving when I increase my demand for money, now that is, not in the future. The latter case would be savings.

I suggest you read Menger’s Principles of Economics. This is basic Austrian Economics, and you’re wrong.

Lets say a man earns 2000£ a month.

he purchase 1000£ a month on goods and servies, in that month. he gives and receives no gifts, he earns no other incomes.

this pattern goes on for a year.

at the end of the year, are we best to say that he has spent 12000£ and has a hoard of 12000£, or that he has savings of 12000£, or are we saying something else about how the year worked out for him?

I still don’t know what to exactly say as to whether saving is “deposit banking/loan banking” or “loan banking”.

Perhaps an easier way to go about this would be to post some quotes.

Here is a quote from Murray Rothbard’s America’s Great Depression (starting on page 38)

Savings and investment are indissolubly linked. It is impossible
to encourage one and discourage the other. Aside from bank
credit, investments can come from no other source than savings
(and we have seen what happens when investments are financed by
bank credit). Not only consumers save directly, but also consumers
in their capacity as independent businessmen or as owners of corporations.
But can’t savings be “hoarded”? This, however, is an
artificial and misleading way of putting the matter. Consider a
man’s possible allocation of his monetary assets:
He can (1) spend money on consumption; (2) spend on investment;
(3) add to cash balance or subtract from previous cash balance.
This is the sum of his alternatives. The Keynesians assume,
most contrivedly, that he first decides how much to consume or
not, calling this “not-consumption” saving, and then decides how
much to invest and how much to “leak” into hoards. (This, of
course, is neo-Keynesianism rather than pure Keynesian orthodoxy,
which banishes hoarding from the living room, while readmitting
it by the back door.) This is a highly artificial approach and
confirms Sir Dennis Robertson’s charge that the Keynesians are
incapable of “visualizing more than two margins at once.”2 Clearly,
our individual decides at one and the same stroke about allocating
his income in the three different channels. Furthermore, he allocates
between the various categories on the basis of two embracing
utilities: his time preferences decide his allocation between consumption
and investment (between spending on present vs. future
consumption); his utility of money decides how much he will keep in
his cash balance. In order to invest resources in the future, he
must restrict his consumption and save funds. This restricting is his savings, and so saving and investment are always equivalent. The two terms may be used almost interchangeably.

And here are two quotes from Murray Rothbard’s What Has Government Done to Our Money? and The Case for a 100 Percent Gold Dollar (Starting on Page 134-135 and then 162)

In one sense, 100 percent banking is now easier to establish than it was in 1962. In my original essay, I called upon the banks to start issuing debentures of varying maturities, which could be purchased by the public and serve as productive channels for genuine savings which would neither be fraudulent nor inflationary. Instead of depositors each believing that they have a total, say, of $1 billion of deposits, while they are all laying claim to only $100 million of reserves, money would be saved and loaned to a bank for a definite term, the bank then relending these savings at an interest differential, and repaying the loan when it becomes due.

(Page 162)

Another argument holds that the fact that notes and deposits are redeemable on demand is only a kind of accident; that these are merely credit transactions. The depositors or noteholders are simply lending money to the banks, which in turn act as their agents to channel the money to business firms. And why repress productive credit? Mises has shown, however, the crucial difference between a credit transaction and a claim transaction; credit always involves the purchase of a future good by the creditor in exchange for a present good (money). The creditor gives up a present good in exchange for an IOU for a good coming to him in the future. But a claim—and bank notes or deposits are claims to money—does not involve the creditor’s relinquishing any of the present good. On the contrary the noteholder or deposit-holder still retains his money (the present good) because he has a claim to it, a warehouse receipt, which he can redeem at any time he desires.[25] This is the nub of the problem, and this is why fractional-reserve banking creates new money while other credit agencies do not—for warehouse receipts or claims to money function on the market as equivalent to standard money itself.

To those who persist in believing that the bulk of bank deposits are really saved funds voluntarily left with the banks to invest for savers, and are not just kept as monetary cash balances, I would like to lay down this challenge: If what you say is true, why not agree to alter the banking structure to change these deposits to debentures of varying maturities? A shift from uncovered deposits to debentures will of course mean an enormous drop in the supply of money; but if these deposits are simply another form of credit, then the depositors should not object and we 100-percent theorists will be satisfied. The purchase of a debenture will, furthermore, be a genuine saving and investment of existing money, rather than an unsound increase in the money supply.

Now these seem to agree with Giles’ view on saving

Of course perplexingly enough when you look in the Index of the book you find that the word Savings is listed on Page 43. There is no word “savings” on page 43, but instead his talk about Hoarding. Cruel trick or typo? I don’t know.

But then…

In Henry Hazlitt’s Economics in One Lesson (Page 167) he says

The enemies of saving are not through. They begin by drawing a distinction, which is proper enough, between “savings” and “investment.” But then they start to talk as if the two were independent variables and as if it were merely an accident that they should ever equal each other. These writers paint a portentous picture. On the one side are savers automatically, pointlessly, stupidly continuing to save; on the other side are limited “investment opportunities” that cannot absorb this saving. The result, alas, is stagnation. The only solution, they declare, is for the government to expropriate these stupid and harmful savings and to invent its own projects, even if these are only useless ditches or pyramids, to use up the money and provide employment.

There is so much that is false in this picture and “solution” that we can here point only to some of the main fallacies. Savings can exceed investment only by the amounts that are actually hoarded in cash.’[*] Few people nowadays, in a modern industrial community, hoard coins and bills in stockings or under mattresses. To the small extent that this may occur, it has already been reflected in the production plans of business and in the price level. It is not ordinarily even cumulative: dishoarding, as eccentric recluses die and their hoards are discovered and dissipated, probably offsets new hoarding. In fact, the whole amount involved is probably insignificant in its effect on business activity.

* Many of the differences between economists in the diverse views now expressed on this subject are merely the result of differences in definition. Savings and investment may be so defined as to be identical, and therefore necessarily equal. Here I am choosing to define savings in terms of money and investment in terms of goods. This corresponds roughly with the common use of the words, which is, however, not consistent.

Of course the confusion continues… In Robert Murphy’s Human Action Study Guide (page 178) he says

Before lengthening the period of production, a person must first engage in saving, i.e; consuming less than what is possible. An obvious example is the stockpiling of consumer goods for the workers who will be devoted to a project (such as construction of a bridge) that will not yield direct benefits for several years

Now I’M REALLY confused lol.

Perhaps a Mises staff or Austrian Professor could sort this out.[:D]

(Sorry for the length)

If you stick a bag of gold under your bed you are decreasing the amount of gold in circulation. That increases the buying power of the gold still in circulation. So yes, you are saving. And yes, you are redirecting resources to meet the wants of others - because others can now buy more with the gold they spend. The savings is not being invested in a targeted manner but it is being invested nonetheless.

Adding or removing money from circulation does not increase or decrease wealth so the wealth you had a claim to has to go somewhere.

He has increased his cash balance by the amount, what’s so difficult about that notion?

yes, and what is the reason that his larger balance of money (cash if you will) is not categorizable as savings?, what does it lack that ‘savings’ does not lack?

it is consumables gone for some time unconsumed, the very definition of savings.

you are saying that ‘my life savings’, are not my life savings if they are in the form of cash.