Hello,
I have been trying to understand why economic calculation is not possible in a socialist society. I think I understand why a completely centrally planned society could not economize. Planners would have no way of determining opportunity costs associated with the factors of production. I also see why planners could not economize merely by solving the various mathematical equations to determine what prices would be in equilibrium. Knowing what prices would be if the economy was in some theoretical equilibrium tells you nothing about how to move toward that equilibrium given that the real world is currently in disequilibrium. However, I do not understand why a so-called market socialist economy is necessarily impossible. Perhaps someone here can help me work out why.
In Human Action, Mises wrote the following regarding market socialism: “One cannot play speculation and investment. The speculators and investors expose their own wealth, their own destiny. This fact makes them responsible to the consumers, the ultimate bosses of the capitalist economy. If one relieves them of this responsibility, one deprives them of their very character. They are no longer businessmen, but just a group of men to whom the director has handed over his main task, the supreme direction of the conduct of affairs. Then they–and not the nominal director–become the true directors and have to face the same problem the nominal director could not solve: the problem of calculation.”
Salerno, in his postscript to Mises’ 1920 article, states basically the same thing: “…any attempt to implement monetary calculation by forcing or inducing managers of socialist enterprises to act as profit-maximizing (or even more absurdly, price-and- marginal-cost-equalizing) entrepreneurs founders on the fact that these managers do not have an ownership interest in the capital and output of their enterprises. Consequently, the bids they make against one another in seeking to acquire investment funds and purchase productive resources must result in interest rates and prices that are wholly and inescapably arbitrary and useless as tools of economic calculation.”
In other words, Mises and appear to be saying that, if people are not risking their own private property, they will not act responsibly enough to be allowed to perform the entrepreneurial function.
My question is this: how does one know a priori that the “socialist entrepreneurs” will not decide to act responsibly with “society’s” property? How does one know that there is no way for the socialist director to devise a system of incentives that would cause the socialist entrepreneurs to behave responsibly?
Elsewhere in Human Action, Mises explains why entrepreneurs under capitalism do behave well: “Society can freely leave the care for the best possible employment of capital goods to their owners. In embarking upon definite projects these owners expose their own property, wealth, and social position. They are even more interested in the success of their entrepreneurial activities than is society as a whole. For society as a whole the squandering of capital invested in a definite project means only the loss of a small part of its total funds; for the owner it means much more, for the most part the loss of his total fortune.”
Entrepreneurs serve the consumers under capitalism because their “property, wealth, and social position” depend on their doing so. What prevents a socialist director from creating an inventive structure whereby the “property [i.e. their consumer goods], wealth, and social position” of the socialist entrepreneurs depended upon their profit-making abilities? If the director did create such a system, would not the socialist entrepreneurs behave the same as capitalist entrepreneurs?
–Gabriel