I apologize for the necessarily long post.
I found an article by Zarlenga on this subject here:
http://www.monetary.org/mengerrefutation.html
I’ll address this article point by point.
The first part of the alleged refutation concerns the volatility of gold. Zarlenga contends that the price of gold in terms of other commodities decreased during certain periods in history. For example, he contends that following the discovery of the Americas prices in Holland and England rose by as much as 500% over the course of a century and a half.
The Austrian theory is completely consistent with an increase in the supply of gold causing an increase in the prices of other commodities in terms of gold. This has occurred historically, the most recent period cited being 420 years ago. It is unlikely to happen again unless gold is discovered on other planets.
Zarlenga also makes the point that, in more recent times, gold has gone through periods where it had high volatility in terms of money. All of these involve changes in the value of money, not changes in the value of gold. The price of gold fell in terms of money from 1789 to 1809 because, among other things, the U.S. was shifting from the Continental, backed only by promises for the U.S. government to redeem the currency for gold some day, by the gold-back dollar. Similar events were taking place in all of the other periods cited.
Note that the highest volatility cited that was caused by changes in the value of gold is 500% over a century and a half. This pales in comparison to the changes caused in the money supply in just the century prior to gold prices hitting $1,000 an ounce earlier this year, which amounts to 5,000%.
The article then tries to refute Menger by citing the difference between the gold-silver ratio in the ancient Roman Empire and China, Japan, Africa, and Spain. This ignores the tremendous transportation costs of the time. It took several months crossing the deserts of the middle-east to get commodities from the west to the east. Under these circumstances, the Austrian theory is not at all at odds with differences in the exchange ratios. The difference in exchange ratios is, assuming it is correct, not important to monetary theory. However, monetary theory can tell us that this condition indicates that the west almost certainly had more silver relative to gold at that time than the east. In this way, a-priori monetary theory can focus the efforts of historical investigations.
The article then makes an attempt to refute the following statement by Menger:
“The reason why the precious metals have become the generally current medium of exchange among all peoples of advanced economic civilization is because their liquidity is far and away superior to that of all other commodities, and at the same time because they are found to be specially qualified for the concomitant and subsidiary function as money.” (p.17)
The article attempts to refute this statement by citing instances in ancient Rome, China, and Peru where metals other that gold and silver were used as money. The question would be whether Menger would have considered these advanced economic civilizations. The relevant criteria would be the mining and metal refining technology and capital structure in these societies compared to those in Europe in the 1870’s. There can be little doubt that fewer resources were required to produce iron, copper, and bronze in 1871 than were required in 200 BC. Consequently, it is obvious that by advanced economic civilizations Menger was not including these ancient civilizations.
The article then contends that a 130 grain standard size for coins emerged in several civilizations and that this represented the value of a cow, with cattle being the previous unit of exchange. It then states “If gold was in the process of supplanting the old money unit, without institutional conventions, there is no way to explain the international 130 grain consistency.” Actually, there are only two ways to explain this. Either all of the governments got together in an international summit and agreed on the 130 grain standard, or the market already existed and the governments simply adopted the standard that had already been adopted by the market. Which one is more likely?
Finally, the article uses a bunch of quotes to support its point but admits that “it is not possible to establish history through such through such contemporary studies.”
In summary, the Austrian monetary theory is completely consistent with all of the evidence cited. We would expect to find more government-minted coins in the archeological record than privately minted coins because private merchants would more likely weigh the metal (as they did during the gold rush) than mint coins. Zarlenga has provided no evidence to prove his point that the origin of money is government decree.