This is Rothbard’s proposal for returning to the gold standard and free banking (slightly modified, I’ve included savings deposits in calculating the new par, whereas for some reason Rothbard did not, even though he agrees that they are demand liabilities).
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Divide the quantity of gold in official reserves by the quantity of federal reserve notes, demand deposits, other checkable deposits, and savings deposits. This yields the weight per dollar required to disgorge all gold from official holdings, and return it to private hands; this is the new par, or “price” of gold in dollars.
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Send to the treasury a proportion of official gold sufficient to redeem all outstanding FRN at the new par, which the treasury will redeem at par for a limited period of time (e.g. 60 days). All incoming FRN are to be destroyed, and no new ones or any other State-created paper notes are to be produced. Nor is the State to participate in minting coins. The gold disgorged can thereafter be minted if and however the market pleases.
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Send to the commercial banks the remainder of the gold, which is sufficient to meet all their demand liabilities in gold at the new par. Now the banks find themselves with 100% reserves against demand liabilities, and operating in a free banking environment. We can presume they will start issuing their own bank notes once again, to replace FRN which are rapidly being removed from circulation.
Now, here’s my question: if the US official gold reserves constituted all the gold in the world, then the program, described above would cause a seamless transition, with neither inflation nor deflation. However, that is not the case. In addition to the official reserves, there are large quantities of gold in private hands, and in other official hoards, both in the US and around the world. How does this gold effect things? Suppose the market price for gold is $1000/oz at present, and the price of a TV is $100. I can sell my one ounce of gold for $1000 and buy ten TVs. Suppose the new par is $10,000/oz. After the reform, then, I can deposit my gold in a bank and receive a $10,000 credit in my account, with which (either via checks, or bank notes, or debit cards, et al) I can now purchase 100 of the same TVs. Two things have happened to cause this change. Firstly, gold was previously an asset (like land, or shoe laces, or stocks, or anything else) which could be sold for money, whereas now gold is money. Secondly, gold now is 10x the amount of money for which it could formerly be sold. Essentially, all the gold in private hands that could make its way into the US economy, either circulating as gold, or being deposited as demand deposits in banks, represents an expansion of the money supply. Suppose there are ten million ounces in question. At the new par, that is $100 billion: added to the money supply. If the money supply was, say, $1 trillion before, that means a 10% monetary expansion, and roughly proportional increase in the general price level. Unless I’m missing something, this means that a return to the gold standard by the aforementioned plan would be inflationary - possibly quite inflationary, depending on the amount of gold likely to enter the US economy relative the size of the previous money supply.
It seems to me (though I’m not 100% on this, and I’d appreciate your thoughts), that the influx of gold to the US and the increased production within the US would continue as long as gold was overvalued relative goods and services. That is, until relative prices returned to their pre-reform levels. For example, when one ounce of gold would once again buy just 10 TVs instead of 100. This would require a ten-fold increase in prices. Let me put it another way: as a result of the reform, gold in the US suddenly becomes 10x more valuable than it was relative all goods and services. This would have the same affect as if in reality right now the market price of gold increased ten-fold in the US while all other prices in the US remained the same: i.e. huge increase in production until gold prices fell back down (but w/ a gold standard, it’s not the “gold price” that falls, it’s the purchasing power of gold that has to fall - i.e. prices of goods and services have to rise), and huge influx of gold to buy goods in the US (which are now 1/10th the cost as before in terms of gold), either export goods or assets (stocks, real estate, etc), until those goods reassert their previous prices relative gold in the US, or (for export goods), until their prices in foreign markets drop sufficiently due to increased supply.
Thoughts? Am I missing something?