That is incorrect. Interest rates represent the accounting profits of various industry’s(Specific companies) along a temporal axis. If you’ve bothered to completely read up on ABCT then you would have known that Interest rates tell us where on the temporal axis is there the greatest market discrepancy’s offering up entrepreneurial opportunity for profit.
Stages of production furthest from production are least impacted by consumer low time-preference. On the other hand once consumer’s become thrifty then stages of production closest to consumption, like retail, will begin to suffer accounting losses. Stages furthest from consumption do not immediately feel this alteration in consumer behavior, as a result they may still be experiencing profits, even if the profits are substantially lower. This will move investment away from these industry’s into sectors furthest from consumption where the consumers preferences are least felt. This practice of consumers becoming thrifty, is the equivalent of saying interest rates fall, as the average or median begins to drop. It will be represented in smaller interest rates at the loan office, as a competitive mirroring of the market behavior. As a result capital begins to flow in the direction to where there still remains a profit, that is stages furthest from production.
When investment is placed into stages furthest from production, the future economy potentially becomes more productive. In the long run the new abundant economy may yet change consumer preference to alter their position of thrift, as products and goods are now more abundant and are offered at a cheaper cost. In that case investment may begin to move back into retail and into stages closest to consumption.
You seem to have missed the entire roll of what interest is, and how it plays into the Austrian Capital theory. Otherwise you would have known that the ABCT isn’t about interest rate aggregates, but about accounting profits getting distorted along the temporal axis.
As for your analysis of “overconsumption”. The term seems to be synonymous with mal-investment. If we’ve over-consumed out of alignment with consumer preference then by whatever percentage the over-investment occured, you’ll have a correction by that much. If consumers don’t want 2000 houses, but instead want 1000, well then you’ve got 1000 houses worth of idle capital needing to be re-allocated or destroyed. Which actually did occur in California.
As for your brick analogy, well again your taking the concepts too literally and missing the fundamental points.
IF you want a more literal explanation see the graph on page 293.
http://mises.org/books/desoto.pdf
You may as well just go ahead and read all of Chapter 5.