On the Lew Rockwell blog, Lew always says if the U.S. bans trade with a certain country, it is an attempt “to sicken and starve the Iranians/North Koreans/Cubans/(insert country here) and punish them for the actions of their government”. I understand the benefits of free trade (of course) but I think that if trading with an oppressive regime strengthens that regime, it should be criminal.
For example, suppose that a large group of foreign nations said,
"Due to the massive violations of human rights committed by the U.S. government and their repeated refusal to disarm, we have instituted the following policies:
That no individual or business under our jurisdiction may accept U.S. dollars as payment for any product or service;
That no individual or business under our jurisdiction may purchase U.S. bonds or government-issued securities;
That no individual or business under our jurisdiction may supply the United States with base metals, aircraft or aircraft parts, fuels, lubricants, radioactive materials, computer components or electronic communications systems;
That any individual or business violating these policies is liable to have assets confiscated and corporate charters revoked, until such time as the United States reduces its current military expenditure to one-fourth of its current volume, and withdraws its troops from all foriegn territories."
I think that, due to the U.S. reliance on trade, such an edict would have have the effect of forcing the U.S. to make whatever concessions were demanded. But that’s beside the point, because we libertarians are more concerned with the morality of an endeavor than the resulting consequences.
So is it moral for a nation to restrict trade in things that are of military value, in order to weaken an evil government?
Firstly, the people living in the banning countries are less able to trade with the United States, and their standard of living is affected. So what? Is “standard of living” more important than defending human rights? And you might also point out that the people living in the banning countries have their freedom affected; they are being told who they can and cannot trade with by threats of force. Again, so what? Does freedom mean the ability to sell weapons to war criminals?
You might point out that the people in the country targetting also have their standard of living reduced. However, they are not “sickened and starved” because nobody is being told not to supply them with food, medicine, or clothing. Who’s to say that we wouldn’t benefit if the government was forced to reduce its military?
I think that abolishing war will require ways to mitigate military threats that do not rely on violence. Economic sanctions have the potential to be just that, especially since international trade is more important in the 21st century than it was in, say, the 18th century. Am I wrong?
