HA, page 22:
Knowing nothing about physics, I was left to wonder what he was talking about. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
Probably he meant people who reject all causality on quantum physics grounds or people who are logical positivists.
Actually, Dirac himself never rejected causality and he uses probability merely for lack of better knowledge of prior causes/underlying processes (he stated this explicitly in the book he introduced Dirac functions in–I have it here somewhere in my library–so he would have agreed with Quetelet and Bailey and De Morgan and Jevons and Mises). Dirac justified it by stating that probability and superposition gives in large sample good agreement with data.
It is other physicists and economists who then, also eminent, misrepresented this back then.
doesn’t Bell’s Theorem say that causality is dead?