Let me play a few rounds of Civilization IV, then I’ll get back to you. 
1.As I am not familiar with praxeology: why is the idea of communal property in ancient tribes wrong according to praxeology?
Very primitive familial groups can exist without private property. I wouldn’t want to dispute that. But without private property at least in the means of production you are going to run into capital conflicts that make even a barter economy unworkable. And, for any more integrated economy (the near east say 5k years ago) you need a medium of exchange and economic calculation, which again implies private property in the means of production.
2.Pre-colonial Australian Aboriginal society is often described as a hunter-gatherer society, where there was communal property and private possessions. Does anyone have a reference which argues that this is not the case?
I am not arguing that there were no tribal commons, just against tribal communism.