Please explain to me how I was arguing for utopian idealism, as you seem to imply.
IMO, AnCap would be the ideal society. IMO, any ideal society is utopian. I have made the assumption that you are a proponent of AnCap, not only because you are a member of this forum, but also because your quick and negative response to the singular statement: Government will always exist. I am clairvoyant, after all. But I never said you were arguing FOR utopian idealism, regardless your Ad Hominem. I said that you were implying that to argue against AnCap is to argue from ignorance. Why? My statement was premised on never having read of an AnCap society (or, be it, never having read of a time when government did not exist).
I wasn’t asserting that there won’t always be government. So no, I made no argument from ignorance.
You’re correct w/o exception considered in my post following the one you have cited. When I read a statement like, “Government will always exist,” I first consider whether it is a possibility before I jump down the posters throat with Ad Hominems and my overwhelming ability in logic. If it is a possibility, then the OP would not have to clarify, “I think…” A possibility is a possibility regardless what one thinks. To suggest otherwise is an argument from ignorance.
Also, I don’t need to be clairvoyant to make the assertion that “Government will always exist.” As a possibility, it is a truth, a priori, that requires neither proof nor the ability to divine the future. The whole foundation of AnCap is an argument from ignorance otherwise. There are so many factors that can cause human action that we are ignorant to know them all and, therefore, must not oversimplify the market or allow the government to intervene in it. AnCap asserts, a priori, certain propositions (ie. laws of economics) to be necessarily true (ie. axioms) that cannot be proven (ie. they are non-experimental). But that is the point: AnCap is not an argument from ignorance because the axioms need not be proven to be true! “Government will always exist” need not be proven to be true (strictly speaking, as a possibility)! I also conditioned the possibility on whether mankind continues to see government, albeit constrained, as a necessary evil to check against crime and other governments. I then conditioned the possibility (with your help) on whether some people, powerful or otherwise, will always see government as a solution to minimize their discomfort (ie. “maximize their profits”). So the statement was not an absolute certainty. It was conditional and, therefore, only an absolute possibility.
You also seem to be committing the tu quoque fallacy here.
I am not proving you wrong by any attempt at hypocricy. I am not saying you’re wrong, therefore, I am right. It is not the tu quoque fallacy to suggest that we are BOTH wrong. However, as I will demonstrate below, that you are right because I led you into your wrong.
I don’t agree with your rules of how statements MUST be written in a relative rather than absolute manner. Since the future is as uncertain as you say it is, then common sense dictates that “government will always exist” is mere possibility and there exists no need for me to state “it is a possibility…” or “i think…” It need not be true to be possible. Nevertheless, according to your rules (the way you decided to interpret the statement), I did argue from ignorance. You interpreted “government will always exist” as an absolute certainty and not as an absolute possibility.
In a sense, your interpretation of the statement set up a straw man to knock down. But literally, it did not because I committed the fallacy of ambiguity.