I understand the need for sound money. That hit me as clear as a punch on the nose, so there’s no need to go into that at all. What I want to do is understand why carefully targeted ‘stimulus spending’ is necessarily bad, both under a gold standard and under fiat money. I’m going to present a simple situation where it seems that stimulus spending might be helpful, and ask you all to critique it. Hopefully from that I can get the same appreciation that I have for the need for a gold standard. I’m not interested in the ‘morals’ of my case as such at this particular point, just the ‘economic efficiency’. Anyway, here we go…
Imagine a country where levels of car ownership are very low and there are not a lot of big roads. The government decides that a nation of vehicle owners and a network of roads spanning the country would be a good thing to have because the economy could really flourish if the producers of goods that were currently only able to be sold locally could get their wares up and down the country and to the docks and airports to sell them abroad etc. They could see that this would potentially give a lasting boost to the economy, so they agree to give it a go. They build a factory in order to start producing cars, and start a road building project. They hire a range of people with a range of abilities to cover everything from digging the roads to designing the electronics for the car etc. They hire these people from wherever they can get them – the unemployed from their own population as much as possible, but also from abroad if they need to.
Anyway, the whole thing takes a few years, but at the end of it they have a road network and they virtually give the cars away to the population in order to get them moving. Hey presto! The population can suddenly get a lot more done for a lot less effort.
It’s obvious that if the government that attempted the scheme outlined above was on a 100% gold standard it could only pay for the things it wanted to do with wealth already looted from the population via taxes. However by building the roads/cars etc. it is in fact ‘giving back’ the taxed money, albeit redistributed in a different form and in different portions to which it was taken. In effect the government has run a kind of ‘forced savings’ scheme to build up capital and then subsequently – using its power to force things through - it has co-ordinated use of the capital in a way that would have been very hard for the private sector to manage. The result being a road and vehicle network that really does open up the possibility of expanding the economy greatly by overcoming one of the biggest barriers to growth (cheap and fast movement of goods), and also a reduction in unemployment because project requires much labour to complete and then to maintain and service afterwards in the form of fuel stations, vehicle maintenance, road repairs etc.
However the crux of my question comes when the government running a fiat currency does the same thing, but prints money to pay for the project. By printing money it is robbing the existing holders of money by devaluing the currency, but it is robbing them ‘for their own good’, in that it is exchanging the stolen wealth for capital that will quickly help the victims to more than recover the wealth lost in the devaluation of their currency holdings. In this way, is running the printing presses really a ‘stimulus’ for the economy, and the Keynesian idea true (even if only in one very narrowly defined scenario?
So, over to you please…