The Austrian economists have brilliantly described the immutable laws of praxeology, and that there can be no legitimate economic theory that violates these laws. But what about all of the things that praxeology can say nothing about?
I’m towards the end of Human Action (though already well familiar with Austrian theory), and there is, for example, a section that talks about how psychological factors (as opposed to purely praxeological factors) ultimately determine how the originary rate of interest can be permanently altered by a change in the money relation (i.e. an increase/decrease in the supply of money can enrich heavy savers at the expense of heavy consumers, thus resulting in a lasting increase in the amount of saved funds available). Mises is quick to mention that praxeology can’t say anything about this, and that any predictions about the effects in changes in the money relation (aside from the trade cycle, but that’s a separate question) depend heavily on psychological data that is particular to that period of time and other data. Now, I am generally of the mindset that economists generally shouldn’t make policy recommendations based on their own personal inklings (rather than on praxeological truths), but what how should an Austrian react when certain economists place a lot of blame for the recent financial collapse on psychological factors, even if these economists acknowledge the legitimacy of the Austrian Business Cycle Theory? I have frequent arguments with my friends in which they acknowledge that easy credit played a huge role in the crisis, but that even in the absence of credit expansion, investors could still get caught up in irrational exuberance and positive feedback loops and bid up shiny new financial instruments whose inherent risk they don’t fully understand, and that we’d still be faced with a financial collapse due to the poor investments in the housing sector.
The Austrians often point out that one of the central problems of trade cycles to be addressed by economists is the question of how so many entrepreneurs, who generally steer the economy on a course most desirable to consumers, all seem to get it wrong all at the same time. There can be no question that the Austrian Business Cycle Theory explains much of this, but what about the remaining factors, which we supposedly can’t say anything about if we strictly refer only to the rules of praxeology?
The following explanation has been proposed by various Austrians as to how bubbles can’t occur in the absence of credit expansion: in order to bid up heavily a certain investment, speculators must withdraw funds away from their existing investments and put them towards the bid-up investment, which undervalues the other investments in the process, and this creates even more corrective market forces by allowing the smart speculators who aren’t getting swindled by the shiny new investment to buy up all the undervalued investments that the "irrational’ investors left behind. I think there’s definitely something to say for this, but it doesn’t render impossible the notion that “irrational” investors could still abandon their other more reliable investments in favor of the bubble investment, even though I think credit expansion aggravates behavioral factors. Is not economic analysis to a certain degree barren if it doesn’t consider behavioral/psychological factors in addition to praxeological truths?