Completely wrong. Can you not read? The very sentence is:
“this provides both a refutation of those
theories which derive the origin of money from a general agreement
to impute fictitious value to things intrinsically valueless_,_ and a confirmation of Menger’s hypothesis concerning the origin of the use of money.”
He was saying that fiat money could not come about through general agreement, and he then explains how - despite the fact that it is worthless in itself - fiat money could nevertheless come about. That sentence and the next two paragraphs are closely linked on purpose.
Again, incorrect. I was not arguing anything that you addressed in your blog post. I wasn’t talking about what Mises argued with the regression theorem, I’m talking about what you are saying now.
Where exactly did you clarify this? I did not see any such explanation or definite definition of ‘money’. Do you disagree with Mises and Rothbard that the classification of a medium of exchange as ‘money’ is not clear-cut?
Moving on: You have said “money is based on intrinsic value, not trust and confidence.” You fail to realise that money can rely on either of those things, and that the ‘trust and confidence’ relies merely on some link with ‘intrinsic value’. The difficulties in explaining the emergence of money was due to an infinite regress: demand for money being based on its past exchange value, and that exchange value being based on its past demand, and that past demand being based on its past exchange value, and so on. How was this solved? By showing how the demand for goods most marketable for their direct use resulted in their use in exchange. Now one of the most important aspects of the theory is that the particular medium of exchange can remain money even if its link to the original, direct use commodity is completely severed. We have provided outlines of this aspect both from Mises and Rothbard. When you understand this, you realise that a money does not need value in itself, but rather that in order to come about, it needed to have a historical relation to a good already in demand (either for direct or exchange use). Now, assume for the moment that bitcoin is being used as a medium of exchange (which you in fact admitted above). Either this is for its own historical direct use, its link to a commodity for direct use, or its link to a commodity for exchange use. Some here have posited that bitcoin has cryptographical direct use. It is also the case that bitcoin can be used to facilitate employment of fiat currencies, thus its use is like that of gold-backed currencies in regard to the regression theorem.
There is a big question hovering over you. You are saying that the particular commodity that money is made of must have ‘intrinsic value’, and therefore an industrial use. How is it that most commodities used as money today do not have such intrinsic value but are nevertheless used as money? Because of their historical link. But this link no longer exists, and they therefore have no intrinsic value!! They can never be money, according to you. According to Mises and Rothbard, however, they can indeed be money due to their historical link which made them generally accepted. Mises only argued that money cannot come about by general agreement and that its origin relies on the demand of directly used goods, not that it cannot remain in common use even if it has no ‘intrinsic value’. Is there any reason that the demand for bitcoin cannot be based off the demand for other moneys (since it facilitates the use of those moneys), which can then be easily traced back to a good directly used per the regression theorem? I have not seen you address this.