When a central bank buys some government bonds, do the bonds just get thrown away as if they had never existed? Or are they somehow still active - i.e. is the government still obliged to pay the coupon and eventually the principal on them?
So for example I can see one of two scenarios being true:
Scenario A:
The government create 10billion of bonds and sells them to
the private sector.
The government debt is now 10 billion.
Then the fed creates 10 billion of fresh new money to buy back the bonds.
The bonds are destroyed and forgotten about.
The government debt is now zero.
Scenario B:
The government create 10billion of bonds and sells them to
the private sector.
The government debt is now 10 billion.
Then the fed creates 10 billion of fresh new money to buy back the bonds.
The bonds are retained and are still “active”.
The government debt is still 10billion - but the debt is to its central
bank. (rather like your left hand owing your right hand money!)
Actually, the last step in scenario B may not be so silly after all. It effectively acts as a commitment being made to the outside world that 10billion of base money will be destroyed at some future time thereby giving people confidence in the value of the currency - or other/subsequent government bonds.
So which one is the case A or B? (or some thing else entirely?).