If I now understand your claim that land cannot be owned, I would like to move along to the issue of alienability.
alienation of one’s labor is too illegitimate, no matter if the serf/ employee gives his consent. All property gained trough someone else’s alienation of their own body or labor is illegitimate.
You’re saying that when a person produces a widget it is his property regardless of who owned the resources from which the widget was produced?
For example, if the employer owns some clay, and hires the employee to produce bowls from that clay, the bowls are the property of the employee?