Could you please explain how someone else being able to restrict your usage of property does not contradict your having 100% ownership of it?
I guess it boils down to logic and ethics. Obviously legal structure is a product of ethics, so you have to delve into that. And ultimately I think it just comes down to the rights of actual full property ownership…where a person own something and actually does have 100% control. This is why I don’t understand how you can have such a problem with conceding that two people cannot have 100% ownership of the same thing at the same time.
I think Hoppe’s A Theory of Socialism and Capitalism would be really helpful for you here.
That’s kind of interesting. But you did say it went against your sense of justice.
Well sure… “legal systems make possible conflict-free use of resources, by establishing visible boundaries that nonowners can avoid”…but that’s not all it takes. You need rules for property assignment. And as Kinsella goes on to say in that piece: “Libertarianism does not endorse just any property assignment rule, however.[13] It favors self-ownership over other-ownership (slavery).”
I highely recommend that piece, especially the “Self-ownership and Conflict-avoidance” section. It think it will help elucidate the issue and the libertarian understanding.
a) The conflict resolution works in the corporate situation because it boils down to logical assignment of property ownership. The owner(s) of the property make the rules with regard to that property’s use. It works because they have understood exclusion rights to their property.
If you assume that everyone equally owns everything, there are no such exclusion rights. Therefore, there really is no such thing as property.
b) There is no way to logically disassociate ownership of ones own self and body with ownership of other property in a “property rights” sense. In other words, there is no way to logically reject any sort of property ownership if you accept the concept of self-ownership. And of course, there is no way to justify ownership of any other property if you deny self-ownership.
So this notion of “everyone owns everything except someone else’s body” is a fallacious one. It is inconsistant.
Again, I highly recommend these links pertaining specifically to ownership, as well as the Kinsella piece linked here.
Yes it is. See above.
Logic is flawed when the reasoning proves to be illogical. I don’t know what you’re saying.
Again, see the links above.