“Corporations like Nike pay their laborers in third world countries far below both a living wage and the actual value that they put into shoe production; Nike could double the wages of their factory workers by having their already-wealthy investors take a small haircut considering how much of a mark-up there already is on shoes and the massive profit Nike reaps as a result.”
A few responses I have would be:
-if it’s a known fact that laborers in third world nations are being paid well below their discounted marginal value product then entrepreneurs will bid the labor factors away from Nike, eventually raising wages up to their DMVP
-Nike cannot be accused of marking up their products because the price of a good or service is determined by the intersection of demand and supply curves in the consumer goods market and not based on production costs, i.e. value is imputed backwards.
-if third world nations are concerned about their low real wages then they should allow further market liberalization to encourage capital investment and the corresponding increase in the marginal productivity of their citizens which would to move DMVP and thus wages upward
-if a government was to intervene in the market by imposing a minimum wage above the labor factor’s DMVP then this would cause chronic unemployment and an oversupply of labor in the market
-if Nike was to purposely pay their laborers above their DMVP this would also cause an increase in unemployment and an oversupply of labor in the market (this is the only point I’m not all too sure about; is there such a thing as an endogenous price floor?)
Do you guys have any other rebuttals?