“How do you see it if the PA only enforces this on the people who have voluntarily chosen to allow the PA to enforce this? … For me, that feels like it’s violence.”
If the PA only enforces it only on people who have agreed to have it be enforced against them then I would say that is perfectly consistent with the non-aggression principle.
When you say you feel like it’s violence I only agree with you to the extent that the contractual agreement is not perfect.
For example, imagine that Bob says to Joe, “Hey Joe, I don’t want you smoking marijuana.” (Note: You can replace smoking marijuana with any other non-aggressive activity.)
Joe then replies, “Why should I do what you want?”
Bob says, “Well if you choose to smoke marijuana I am going to stop being friends with you.”
Note that currently Bob is using nonviolent means (ostracism) to try to get Joe to not smoke marijuana. This is perfectly fine.
Joe says, “Okay fine, I’ll agree to never smoke marijuana.”
Bob says, "How will I know you’ll keep your promise? Will you agree to give me your piano if you ever smoke marijuana?
Joe says, “Fine, if I ever smoke marijuana you can have my piano. Do you trust me now?”
Bob says, “Yes, I trust you. Thanks for not smoking marijuana, Joe.”
Joe says, “You’re welcome, Bob. Anything for you, friend.”
So what sort of agreement took place here? You might say the fact that it was a spoken agreement rather than a written one means that there is no binding contractual agreement. To an extent I would agree with that, but I would also say that just because an agreement is written down and signed by all parties dose not necessarily mean that it is a perfectly binding agreement either. Basically, for me the legitimacy of a contractual agreement is never really absolute. Both parties must be fully informed and have really considered what they are agreeing to, in order for any force allowed in the agreement to really be considered legitimate force, rather than aggressive force. So let’s see what happens next:
One day Joe decides to smoke some marijuana.
Bob says, “Joe! What are you doing!? You said you weren’t going to smoke any marijuana!”
Joe says, “Oh, sorry Joe, I forgot.”
Bob says, “That’s no excuse, give me your piano.”
Joe says, “No I want to keep my piano.”
Bob says, “Well it’s mine now; you agreed that I could have it if you ever smoked marijuana which you just did.”
Now this dispute could be resolved peacefully either between themselves or by arbitration from a third party. It could also escalate into violence. Assuming it does escalate to violence, who is on the just side? Bob, Joe, or neither? (Neither would be if they are both guilty of aggression.)
So Bob uses force against Joe to take the piano. When you said, “For me, that feels like it’s violence,” I tend to agree with you for this situation. Yet, at the same time, Bob does have a point. The point is that Joe did agree that Bob could have his piano if he ever smoked marijuana, so assuming the contract was legitimate it would seem that Bob was the rightful owner of the piano and thus would be justified in taking the piano from Bob’s possession.
This little story I just came up with is meant to be an example of a rather weak agreement. It’s true that initially Joe said that if he ever smoked marijuana Bob could have his piano, but never were the details and implication of this agreement made explicit, so I would argue that the contract lacks a lot of legitimacy and thus Bob’s use of force against Joe to take the piano is unjustified.
Bob never made sure that Joe understood that if forgot about the agreement and smoked marijuana then Bob would take the piano with force anyways. Bob never made sure that Joe understood that he didn’t have an option to back out of the contract later. Perhaps Joe thought that he would later be able to say, “Hey Bob, I decided that I want to smoke marijuana. I no longer agree to give you my piano. You’re free to stop being friends with me, as you initially said you would, if you really want.” So you could even say that Joe did not believe that he was agreeing to have forced used against him to take the piano from him. In this sense, the agreement actually did not give any permission to Bob to use force against Joe to take his piano. Thus the “agreement” was really just Joe saying, “If I ever smoke marijuana, I’ll give you my piano. But, if I decide not to give you my piano, then you have no right to forcibly take it from me. I’m just stating that I currently intend to give you my piano if I ever choose to smoke marijuana.” It’s not really even an agreement.
So this has been a long response (I don’t even think it belongs on this thread; it’s off topic), but hopefully you get my point. My point is that I agree with you that it is violence to the extent that the contract is not legitimate.
I will say that I think it’s quite possible that force used by Person A against Person B to prevent B from smoking marijuana can be perfectly legitimate and justified and moral. It’s just that the agreement between A and B in which B initially gave A permission to use force against B to prevent B from smoking marijuana would have to be perfectly legitimate. As I said before, in order to be legitimate, both A and B have to be fully informed about what they are agreeing to. They have to fully understand the consequences and implications.
An off-hand, “Sure, I agree to that” is far too weak and wouldn’t give anyone permission, in my view, to commit acts that would be aggression in the absence of such an agreement. Also, the greater the act of aggression would be in the absence of an agreement, the higher the requirements are for the contract in order for it to be legitimate.
Basically, because of this grey area about how legitimate a contract is, I always caution on the side of not committing aggression. In fact, it may not even be necessary to enforce contractual agreements with force. Mere ostracism can be very powerful. In a great (recommended) lecture by Peter Leeson ( http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-5PbLLBfiM8 ) I remember Leeson saying how a substantial amount of international trade (1/5 of world economic activity maybe? I forget exactly) in the world today occurs in the absence of government enforced contractual agreements. The fact that they make several agreements of each other means that they always have potential for a lot of profits in the future. The mere threat of being ostracized if you ever break your agreement is thus enough to keep these companies to their agreements in the absence of any threats of force backing up the contracts. And these are contracts dealing with millions and billions of dollars!
Thus, while I just spent a considerable amount of writing considering the philosophical and moral case–if someone agrees to have force used against them, is it legitimate/moral to use force against them?–in real life we may never need to encounter this philosophical issue. Thus, whether or not you consider the PA’s use of force against the marijuana user who agreed not to use marijuana aggressive or not may not matter. I think you could take either position depending on the strength of the contractual agreement. But, again, there’s not much of a need to debate this seeing as contracts can just be enforced peacefully. If there is a dispute about the contract later (e.g. the marijuana user claims that the PA is wrong to forcibly prevent him from smoking marijuana) then even if the PA thinks that it is in the right, violently going to war against this marijuana user to prevent him from using marijuana is costly, so chances are peaceful arbitration will be used to settle the dispute anyways.
Sorry for the long response (I tend to do this often
), and this is off topic, so I don’t know if we should continue discussing it here. If you want to reply to me on it elsewhere, I have posted a copy of this post on my blog, so you can reply there if you want and I will read it and try to respond. Here is the post: http://peacerequiresanarchy.wordpress.com/2012/03/30/rant-reply-to-alternatives-considered-on-mises-forum/