If people were willing to pay a fair wage for a good job then we wouldn’t have had to create laws telling people to pay a fair wage. We needed government to step in and protect people. Ironically, their rights were made clear by government intervention. If the free-market is so good, why was there s…

My browser ate my long post. I hate this.

First off, what do you mean by “inalienable” in this context? Second, and once again, do you mean that no one is physically able to “alienate” his labor, or do you mean that it’s only illegitimate for him to do so? And if the former, then can you prove it?

It is centanly possible to alienate (/transfer title of) one’s labor to someone else in feudalism and capitalism, but it is illegitimate because selfownership is inalienable.

You seem to be mixing descriptivity and normativity together . Let’s see if I can separate them. You seem to be really saying that feudalism and capitalism consider it legitimate to alienate one’s labor to someone else, but you think it’s illegitimate. Does that sound right? If so, do you see how t…

Let’s unpack this question. If people were willing to pay a fair wage for a good job then we wouldn’t have had to create laws telling people to pay a fair wage Since when has the government enacted laws with the best of intentions? Do you think we went to war in the Middle East to spread democra…

Actually Rothbard did that. I don’t think that selfownership is inalienable because one cannot physacally alienate one’s control of the body, but because it contradictory to the priciple of selfownership (which is an ethical axiom not derived from facts of nature, but argumentation ethics). You thi…

He most certainly did. I’m not a Rothbardian because of it. Right, so you simply think it’s illegitimate for a person to abandon what you see as his inherent self-ownership, which is entirely normative in nature. How do you see alienating self-ownership as contradictory to the principle of self…

How do you see alienating self-ownership as contradictory to the principle of self-ownership? If denying principle of selfownership in an argument is a performative contradiction, then rejecting it in practice is one too. Rejecting an axiom cannot be seen as of confirmation or aplication of that ax…

What are you positing as the principle of self-ownership? If I don’t believe that people always and necessarily own themselves, then certainly I’m rejecting the principle that people always and necessarily own themselves. Where do you see a performative contradiction here? There are no right or w…

Principle of selfownership cannot be an a priori norm of argumentation if it’s not, well, a norm. NAP can be, but “aggression is wrong on almost all days, but it’s ok on tuesdays” cannot, it’s double standard makes it self-contradictory, becouse something either is or isn’t right. Likewise with your…

Why do you keep saying that businesses in the free-market will not be exploitative?

Economics Economics Questions

John_James September 14, 2012, 10:17pm 28

He’ll do it too!

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Why do you keep saying that businesses in the free-market will not be exploitative?

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