Again, not entirely what I’m saying. I’m saying that it’s immoral for them to be in the situation to begin with, thus, no further action can be considered moral. It will take an external force to bring about equilibrium.
Take the rapist example, a bad one, but whatever. By saying that it is moral for the rapist to stop, you seem to concede that he’s in a place where morality can be attained by his hands. This, however, is a paradox. If the rapist stops himself and you call it moral you accept the premise of the rape as an opportunity for morality to occur - that is you accept the rapists action as being moral, despite being a rapist. However, again, if the rapist does not stop it appears that he is also committing an act of immorality.
When one reaches a paradox, to find the solution one needs to look at the constant between the two - in logic, this is usually the premise. To solve the problem of this paradox, you need to look at what both examples of the rapists action have in common - that is the constant between ending the rape and continuing it. Here, the premise is that the rape itself. If rape occurs, the action is immoral no matter what, whether it is gentle rape, loving rape, or rape without disease, it is rape nonetheless - likewise if it is just rape for a short time. Though ending the rape is of course good for the victim, however, to call the rapist moral for ending presupposes that he is not an immoral man - that he is not a rapist even thoug he is!
For the state the example goes further. Assume that the state continues progressing their oppression, obviously this is immoral, but why? Not because of the consequence, necessarily, but rather because of the nature of the state itself. The consequences of a state are natural and one cannot blame a beast for acting within its nature. The reason that the states oppression is immoral is because of the premise of the state - an organization defined by its oppression. Now, assume the opposite - though unlikely and unnatural example. Assume that the government begins repealing laws. Of course, the repeal of oppression is a good thing for the victims of the state, however, does that make it moral? No. With the example of the state not only do the repeal of laws not come in an instant - making the state immoral as before - but also supposes the existence of the state - an immoral entity - as a premise. Here one sees that with the state both the continuance of oppression and the repeal of it qualifies as immoral, not because of the consequence of the premise, but because of the nature of it.