In an interview with Scott Horton, Bob Murphy says that:
- The Fed gave Wall Street trillions
- Banks want to lend that money
- Bank lending would cause prices to rise
- Bernanke doesn’t want prices to rise
- Bernanke pays banks not to lend
- Thus, no “price inflation” although massive inflation.
How does he pay banks to not lend?
I believe that’s a reference to the new practice of the Fed paying interest on required and excess reserves. Here’s the Fed’s press release from last October.
Edit: Aaargh. Sorry, I hit the confounded “suggest an answer” button by mistake. There doesn’t seem to be any obvious way to correct that, or delete the post and start over. [:(]
Edit 2: Ah, some kind mod must have fixed it. Thanks.