A response to Krugman on structural unemployment

I don’t get why the distinction is relevant here, unless you’re going to make the arguments about price stickiness.

There are appropriate wage rates that will employ all those seeking to be employed at any given productivity. Now obviously, if someone refuses to work under $7/h, and productivity finally rises so he can earn $7/h or more, then he will be employed. But he will be so because his real wage has increased. And prior to the increase in productivity, he was not involuntarily unemployed.

What does it mean productivity rises and wage rates do not? When somebody refuses to work for something below some number stuck in his head, it is basically saying that he is not willing to work for a lower wage and he is voluntarily unemoployed. Wage rates and productivity.. it makes no sense to seperate the two.

If people are hired on account that productivity rises, then all this means is that their real wage rates have risen enough for them to accept a job offer for which before they had declined. You should read this:

http://mises.org/rothbard/mes/chap9b.asp#2G._Problem_of_Unemployment

I don’t think I am. I’m arguing that profound structural unemployment is a condition that characterizes recessions/corrections, that it is closely tied to the concept of malinvestment, and that your notion of structural unemployment is way too narrow (which is why I continuously refer to Garrison’s argument).

Garrison asks,

.

Do you understand why this is relevant? Structural unemployment extends far beyond technological innovation (creative destruction), and one shouldn’t conflate it with frictional unemployment. The real-estate agent that lost his/her job due to the massive contraction in the residential real-estate market is structurally unemployed, the same way that the horseshoe producer was structurally unemployed in the 20s due to the introduction of the automobile. And the same is true for the recent college graduate with a finance degree that can’t find a job due to the contraction in the financial services industry, the construction worker who can’t find a job due to the contraction in residential and commercial real-estate, etc.

This type of unemployment, this relative disproportionaly, is extremely profound today. Again, and this is my key point, the problem is not that “there aren’t enough jobs,” but rather that people have become accustomed to certain wages and have specialized/gained experience in jobs that no longer exist (either at all, or to a sufficient degree) and they’re not willing to work for $8/hour at the local McDonalds/Wal-Mart (though recent data suggests that this is changing, and that individuals are accepting much lower wages).

But Krugman does not agree. He argues that the problem is not that there’s relative demand deficiencies and/or structural imbalances (referring to the structure of production), but rather that there is a general demand deficiency, which is causing disinvestment in all industries, and therefore reducing general productivity across the board. He makes the typical Keynesian argument, which blames insufficient aggregate demand. But this argument simply does not correspond to the facts, as the OP pointed out.

Now if the problem really was a lack of general productivity, then the best way to remedy it is to increase investment (capital accumulation) which you can easily do through government expenditures and by reducing the rate of interest to zero. But again, this prescription is inappropriate because the problem is not really a lack of general productivity (though it does exist to some degree); the problem is that there was too much investment in some industries, and too little investment in others (which is why a readjustment process, rather than an expansionary process, is essential).

Thus:

  1. Krugman’s analysis is not consistent with the Austrian framework
  2. The OP had the correct interpretation of Krugman’s arguments
  3. The problem is not really one of deficient general productivity, though it does exist to some degree
  4. Many of those unemployed today are structurally unemployed

Do you agree with this? We’re in full agreement if you do.

Big mistake. You can increase investment (capital accumulation) by govt expenditures? By reducing the rate of interest to zero? And easily yet?

Shaking my head.

So you really believe the problem to be a lack of general productivity, smiling dave?

Shake your head some more.

The headshaking was about the proposed solutions to the problem.