Can god have ordinal preferences?

Economics Political Theory
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Let us investigate a claim on God and ordinal preferences.

A thought experiment

Preferences are ordinal, we rank them in terms of greatest benefit or least cost. We cannot claim that we love oranges 2.3 times more than apples, since the claim is without merit. It may be true that a utility function and a value scale are one in the same and thus are both ordinal by nature, but what about gods preferences. I have stated in my other writings that gods preferences (at least the god of my past) were for two distinguished goods: salvation and servitude. Therefore, in common economic language, god could prefer a basket of salvation & servitude to another basket of just salvation (or vice versa), yet can he claim that he prefers “basket A” 2.3 times more than “basket B”? Certainly we cannot make that claim, since we operate under limited knowledge, yet a god operates under infinite knowledge.

–Please don’t hijack the thread to wax on about the nonexistence of god. I hope to actually indulge the question

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These types of questions are probably best suited for more theology based forums. In forums like this, they usually invite unproductive and hostile conversation. Besides that in a more theological based site you are probably going to run into more experencied and knowlegable people about theological questions, as well as less chaff and more wheat. Another thing to consider is which framework of a god argument do you want to use (some odd type of generic Xtian god, a Catholic, a kind of Protestant, Jewish, Eastern Orthodox, Muslim, Zoroastrian, some more exotic eastern context, etc) all may yield different conclusions and start with a different mindset and framework. Certainly every religion/ spiritual framework has it’s intellectual leaders and different philisophical/ spiritual backgrounds (hence the divisions).