Can someone clear this up for me? About the fed

Hey, sorry if this is either really simple or makes no sense at all. I saw this argument in another forum and dont know what to make of it.

http://img132.imageshack.us/img132/9832/coincidenceag8.png

So someone is using these graphs - as confusing as they are, to say that housing prices inflated before the Fed lowered the interest rates. Here is what he said:

I just have a few questions.

  1. Is it accurate to say that housing prices rose before the Fed lowered its rate? i.e. is the data valid - I notice it is from a small sample size. The data came from these two sources: http://www.laalmanac.com/economy/ec37.htm and http://www.newyorkfed.org/markets/statistics/dlyrates/fedrate.html

  2. Does it matter if housing prices rose before the rate changed? Is that relevant? I feel like I am missing something simple…

  3. Is the rest of his argument valid? For some reason I am having trouble understanding what he is saying.

No, not really. Principally the Austrians argue that things like the housing bubble are the result of an inflationary boom… so more telling is the rate at which the money supply is expanding. The interest rates are affected by multiple factors (including consumer time preferences) so are probably less indicative than monetary expansion. The trouble with interest rates is that you never really know what the “market” rate for these would have been so you can’t tell how much they diverge from what “would have” been normal. However if the money supply is expanding and the economy is experiencing price inflation, you can be certain that there are distortions happening somewhere and usually the Austrians would be inclined to look at interest rate senstitive investments (such as lengthening production cycles - housing is another one though).

That doesn’t prove anything. All that it proves is that the Fed didn’t lower rates. It doesn’t prove that the interest rates weren’t below the market rate.