I don’t want to discuss the issue of child labor so much. I am talking about “slavery” as in the right (of a person who owns another person) to punish them legitimately as they see fit (rape, torture, death, etc.)
A select few here (Stranger & Spideynw), who otherwise maintain somewhat libertarian positions, claim that children have no rights. They say that parents may do whatever they like with their child, but I have soundly refuted their position across several threads. Eventually, I will offer a comprehensive analysis of this antiquated conception of rights, and attempt to advance the libertarian theory of children and parent’s rights in a new direction. (See a recent Mises Daily, where the focus is still in part on “the ability to consent”.)
I have one more line of questioning for you two. (I find it hard to believe that many others out there are in agreement, but if there are, please feel free to contribute.)
See Kinsella’s How We Come to Own Ourselves.
I assume that you base the (often joint) ownership of children on the fact that they are created by their parents or else somehow legally transferred. On what basis does the child become free ever?
What if the parent restricts the child? I think this approach is inadequate as well without recognizing that parents do not have complete “ownership” in the sense that you maintain. Say a parent won’t buy their 4-year-old a certain present for Christmas, the child runs off and some person offers to take them in, does the parent have no right to take back their child (who is otherwise considered a slave in your hypo)?
Suppose that they don’t. Maggie goes outside to play and talks to Mr. Jones about how mean her parents are and asks to live with him. Mr. Jones says, “Sure Maggie, come on in and I will show you to your room.” Mr. Jones calls Maggie’s parents and informs them that their daughter doesn’t want to live with them anymore and he will be taking care of Maggie. I think what you are saying is that courts would side with Mr. Jones’ claim to “ownership” being superior.
I read the question. The grammar was great. The question fulfilled the obligations of being a question, meaning, there is a possibility of answers. It made sense.
I haven’t explained my theory or what I make this distinction based on yet. Would you like to do so for me? I would prefer that you stay on topic and answer your questions for now. Thank you.
It follows all the laws of gravity. There is the possibility of a Mr. Jones and a Maggie being applied to people. Surely a room will exist in a person’s house. And a maggie can speak and wants to live with Mr. Jones. It’s not bizarro.
I don’t think so. What is unrealistic with a child feeling that they hate their parents and running away, then being offered a place to stay and liking it there? I am not saying that children never have a right to run away. I am saying that it is not always the case.
Also, you merely said, “When they want to”. This doesn’t seem to mesh with your theory that a parent is justified to lock a child in a dungeon, rape, then murder them on a whim. Do they have to escape or can they just assert that they want to go live with a possible “Friends of Babies” if such an organization developed in an otherwise free society?
edit again: It is funny that you are quickly handwaving when faced with the logical conclusion of your own theory. I await Spidey, he could be a tad less intellectually dishonest.