Hi all,
I recently re-read Rothbard’s “What has Government Done to Our Money?” and “The Case For a 100 Percent Gold Dollar”. I came across a section on page 162 that I have not been able to quite understand. I may be missing something obvious, as I am still relatively new to Austrian Economics, so please bear with me.
This is the section that I do not quite understand:
“To those who persist in believing that the bulk of bank deposits are really saved funds voluntarily left with the banks to invest for savers, and are not just kept as monetary cash balances, I would like to lay down this challenge: I what you say is true, why not agree to alter the banking structure to change these deposits to debentures of varying maturities? A shift from uncovered deposits to debentures will of course mean an enormous drop in the supply of money; but if these deposits are simply another form of credit, then the depositors should not object and we 100 percent theorists will be satisfied.”
Here goes my question:
Why would a switch from deposits to debentures mean “an enormous drop in the supply of money”?