Hi
I was thinking about deflation earlier today, and I wonder if I got this right:
Let’s assume someone is selling TV’s that costs 1000 dollars each. The economy goes down, and people are less interested in his TV’s than they were before. The market value drops from 1000 to 900 (he’s still making a profit though). Now, the government decides to help this poor TV seller and begin to increase the money supply. So, the money is inflated, and the price for the TV’s rise to 1000 again. But, these 1000 dollars are now only worth what 900 dollars was worth before the government came to “help” the TV seller. So, in one way, deflation has already occured: He used to get 900 dollars worth 900 dollars, and now he gets 1000 dollars worth 900 dollars. No real difference, except that the inflation caused by the government hurt the savers.
Not only this, but I think he, the TV seller, is hurt even more in the long run: The reason why the prices got back to 1000 was because people borrowed more, but loans have to be payed back sooner or later. Therefore, people will have less money in the long run, and they will be able to buy even fewer TV’s than they could when prices were at 900 (900 real dollars, before the inflation began). Now, the market value might drop to 850, and it’s possible it’s no longer profitable to sell TV’s at that price. Sure the interest rate is low, but loans still have to be repayed.
And, doesn’t deflation pretty much solve itself (not that it has to be a problem, but anyway)? Assuming people will consume less (and I’m not sure about that, people aren’t extremely rational), they will save more, making it easier to get a loan at a low interest rate. And, they will invest. When you buy shares from a company, the company will get money too.
I’m not the first one to think about this, I just wonder if I got it right, or if I forgot something.
/John