Could someone explain to me the shortcomings of each of these topics in scientific philosophy. Would someone be willing to direct me towards a book that would clear this up cause I hardly understand these concepts.
Bertrand Russell - The Problems of Philosophy (second time I’ve recommended this today) Chapter 7 (On Our Knowledge of General Principles, p. 77 of the pdf in the link).
Traditionally, empiricism (Hume, Locke) and rationalism (Plato, Descartes) have been at odds. Empiricists deny that one can have knowledge of anything outside of perceptions. Rationalists disagree and think knowledge can be derived without sense-datum (data from the senses). So, naturally, they disagree on the breadth and power of man’s reason.
Positivism is kind of a combination of the two. Bertrand Russell was a logical positivist, a slightly more amenable version of positivism. Postivism, I think, relies on logical proof (math, basically) and empirical data. The debate comes down to whether or not math/logic (they are the same thing) is true because man has ‘laws’ that we recognize or if they are part of nature. The positivists divide knowledge into analytic (a priori) and synthetic (a posteriori - empirically verifiable).
After all, one cannot create a logical proof for an inference rule without using the inference that one is attempting to proof! There are just certain “rules” that we know and that we use to deduce truth and falsity. 2+2, for instance, we know as 4. J. S. Mill tried to say that we know this because we are so accustomed to it, i.e. that we are familiar with the empircal evidence of its truth. But, Russell, in the PoP, asks whether 2 apples today is the same as 2 Britons 1000 years from now. Of course it is, but how can we have had empirical evidence of that truth? We cannot. Thus, logic/math seem to be categorically opposed to definitions of either a pure empiricist or pure rationalist nature.
Hmm. Yeah basically all I knew before is that Mises looked down upon economists who were empiricists and theorized that economics was a priori like math. Also I heard from tom woods that Austrians are not a big fan of positivism either which is a straw man attributed to austrians because they look similar to chicago school economists to the layman who are positivists. I got a nice reply though I’m liking these forums already.
Aristophanes,
I was always under the impression that positivism and empiricism were more or less the same thing, simply with positivism more focused upon a fixed method of experimentation. I was also under the impression that Kant in his “Critique of Pure Reason” started to bridge the gap between the two by showing that a coherent worldview could only be developed if the two methods were combined through a mixture of a priori and a posteriori reasoning. I don’t know if this is in any way correct or even how exactly I came to believe that.
Could you clarify this for me?
This was in my orignal post
I’m not familiar enough with Kant to answer that =/…(I know I should be…) But, Russell talks a lot about these issues, and Kant, in the book I provided.
I looked for a bit online about Kant, but I think he is one of the most complicated philosophers of recent memory (save Wittgenstein who I am sort of familiar with). Reading him, especially in English, is going to require a study guide or something. If you are really curious you could look up Allen Wood, he is a professor at my University and one of the world’s most well known Kant scholars (I, …uhhh, haven’t taken any of his classes though (Pure Reason was full last spring =/ ))
Are there scientific philosophies that can be considered like a type of empiricism or a type of positivism. Like is there a form of positivism that favors rationalism but only a little bit of empiricism. Or does everybody just say they’re positivists.
could someone give me an example of praxeology vs. an example of logical positivism in economic thought or direct me to an example?