This is tangential to another thread I started on ‘the environment’. Yeah, I know, use of those two words puts people’s brains into non-thinking, auto-reaction, magical thinking mode. So manually switch back to rational thinking mode again if you must.
I want to know if Austrian economics makes any distinction between finite, and non-finite resources. Please treat finite and non-finite as ‘for all practical purposes’ terms. That is, I am well aware that the sun’s energy is finite, but for these purposes, consider it non-finite.
For example, we can make new cars, bikes, toasters. We cannot make new oil. That seems pretty significant to me in terms of how such things should be treated from the standpoint of an economic analysis.
Also, does anyone else here - I feel certain most do not - think that in the case of finite sources of energy - which, remember, are the basis for virtually every component of our current society and therefore differ qualitatively from other types of resources (which alone suggests the need for different treatment) - we have any responsibiilty whatsoever to exercise stewardship for the sake of future generations?
As an aside, I would note something I think most people totally miss: human ingenuity - for all its wonders - has been around since humans have. That is, in our current form, for at least 250,000 years. The industrial revolution was not the product of human ingenuity - it was the product of the discovery of how to extract and utilize extremely energy dense fossil fuel resources, primarily coal, then oil, coupled with human ingenuity, which should therefore be seen as a peer to easy access to fossil fuels in bringing that particular revolution about. So this notion that ‘human ingenuity’ can solve any problem is a laughable misreading of history, and an obvious example of anthropocentrism. We should credit cheap oil as much as human ingenuity, and we should therefore be aware that IF easy access to cheap oil goes away, we may well be in a situation similar to that of, say, 100,000 years ago - human ingenuity intact, but lacking the energy dense resources to leverage that ingenuity into technology.
So, whether you agree with this or not, it is a highly plausible argument that cannot be dismissed out of hand - overlaying graphs of global economic growth (or global population for that matter - but that’s another topic) vs time, with human ingenuity a constant across the last 250,000 years will instantly show you that it was the introduction of relatively cheap fossil fuels which led to the explosion in economic growth and attendant potential for enhanced quality of life. So - this being the case, it seems to me to be idiotic to treat oil and other energy dense resources the same way as, say, toasters. Or even, say, steel or gold or other ‘commodities’.
Which is why I want to know, does Austrian economics make such a distinction? If it doesn’t, this would be, if the above analysis is correct (and as noted, this is child’s play to prove - if one can overcome one’s anthropocentric objections to putting oil on the same pedestal as human ingenuity - which I think most cannot), a flaw, IMO. If it does, can someone point me to the relevant documentation?
I’m not really interested here in ‘know nothing’ or ‘knee jerk’ responses - if you have not the time nor inclination to actually understand what I’ve said here, please don’t bother to respond. I’m not saying you must assume I am right, but you must be capable of understanding, and willing to make the effort to understand, my arguments and their implications, else I am simply not interested in hearing what you think. No offense.