This morning I was thinking of an incident that occured in my hometown of Rutland, Vermont, in the 19th century. Rutland was home to several marble quarrying companies and marble was fortuitously discovered just as the Rutland Railroad came to town and the famous quarries of Carrara, Italy closed do to their unworkable depth. It was maybe 10 years before the Civil War. So there was a lot of immigration into town by people who could not neccesarrily speak English. They took jobs at the quarries, but the terms of their contracts (which they likely could not read) stipulated they had to buy goods from a company store (that charged outrageous prices) and were required to rent homes from property owned by the company. By the 1880’s (I believe) they were so fed up with this state of affairs they went on strike.
I find this an interesting scenerio from the Austrian perspective because they signed contracts and then were coerced into fulfilling different terms then the ones they agreed to (the company employed thugs, I understand). So my question for debate is this: were the employees of the company justified, from the Austrian point of view, into going on strike and forcing the company to adhere to the terms they originally agreed to, but were not necessarily on the paper contract?