Good evening everybody,
it may be somewhat impolite to start asking questions before introcuding myself, but as an Austrian neophyte, so to speak, I’m running against a wall I can’t pass right now.
At first, some information regarding the problem. I’m based in Germany and we have a special government agency to help people get work, the employment agency, let’s call it EA. Since jobs become increasingly rare, due to all kinds of Keynesian-interventionist measures, the EA decided to cooperate with third party agencies who specialize in finding contract work that generally lasts for just a short period of time. It became necessary to get involved with those contracting agencies because the EA is only allowed to offer work according to the labour laws that, for example, give specific long-term dismissal protection while the contracting agencies, which, in bureaucrats’ terms, operate in a “specific sector” of the labour market, are allowed to bypass labour laws in their contracts and therefore, the employers’ lobbying groups pushed on implementing them. What happens is, the contract workers do the same work as their labour-law-protected colleagues, but for lower salaries, more hours per day and less protected against actions of the employer. Almost noone gets a labour-law-contract after their first short contract time is over (which was the initial hope that made politicians allow breaking the labour laws in the first place), and contract workers feel abused because they worked harder than the regular employees for less money.
Now socialists and interventionists step in and call it a market failure because the “better work” of the contract workers is not rewarded, they receive less than their protected colleagues. If you point out that maybe labour laws and union activity raised wages and decreased working time to a level that doesn’t meet the market equilibrium and in fact, these contract workers receive the fair rewarding, they respond by claiming the individual cannot defend against the powers of the market and needs government plus union support to adjust the wages and working time. As proof, they cite the case above. They further explain that if government conditions of working were too rough for the employer who now ‘abuses’ contract work, he would’ve left the country already, but as a matter of fact, he does employ people with ‘normal’ working contracts. So, they conclude, while there was an equilibrium that allowed him to hire protected workers before, the cheaper work force is now gladly misused for his personal profits, which shows free market is only good for exploiting the workers on behalf of the employer.
Obviously, it is true the employer could afford protected workers before. That means you can’t call the labour laws destructive because they still provided the employer an incentive to hire. The only thing I could think of is the “full employment” argument which says that artificially high wages create unemployment which is, after all, the reason for contracting agencies to exist, however, people don’t want to hear that one because it means they are living beyond their means.
Any ideas on how to approach the subject from your perspective? Thanks in advance.