this link http://mises.org/daily/3390 states “The US Federal Reserve, for instance, increased the stock of the monetary base — which includes banks’ demand deposits held with the Fed, plus coins and notes in circulation — from $870.9 billion in August 2008 to $1735.3 billion in January 2009.”
i have seen similar charts elsewhere on the internet.
the artcle goes on to say “The monetary base expands when the central bank takes over the troubled assets of commercial banks in order to extend new credit to those banks.”
and
"What the Fed does is produce inflation…What the rise in base money has done so far is prevent prices of banks’ security holdings to decline to free-market levels. In other words, the money injection helps to keep asset prices at artificially elevated levels, thereby preventing prices in financial markets, credit markets in particular, from adjusting…The government controlled fiat-money regime is highly inflationary"
‘"Expanding the money stock through circulation credit sets into motion an illusionary boom, leading to malinvestment. However, the latter does not come to the surface as long as the credit and money supply keeps growing.’"
if what i read is true the federal reserve has greatly increased its bank reserves to levels not seen in any recent history - well thats strange i guess and that fact alone (some uberbank meddling with interbank lending) is probobly why a federal reserve shouldnt exist at all.
but the article above mentions that malinvestment will not occur so long as credit and money supply keep growing? is this so?
is the only real issue with steady credit and money supply increases the possibility that it might slow down?
would a 2 percent annual credit expansion growth set on auto pilot not cause boom bust cycles or malinvenvent spoken of at this site?
prior the the rapid base money increase that the article claims took place it seems that the monetary base increased rather modestly over the last 4 decades. (chart at link)
clarification appreciated