It seems I’ve riled up the folks at SFN enough for them to make a thread discussing Austrian Economics, and I presume, why it is wrong.
http://www.scienceforums.net/forum/showthread.php?p=522723#post522723
I made my one and only a post on the thread, though I got the following response I find highly interesting:
"…and it’s disadvantage is it’s over-reliance on metaphysics. “Actors” are metaphysical beings, separate from their bodies. They are unified, rational minds. From here are its axioms derived, and conclusions are reasoned to rather than tested. It throws up its hands in despair at the thought of supposedly impossible empiricism, instead relying on statements like “you can’t imagine it otherwise,” the ultimate refrain of the unimaginative and wrong dogmatists since the beginning of philosophy, from geocentrists to medieval theologians to deniers of quantum mechanics.
What a human actually is, as far as empirical science can tell us, is a complicated mass of organic molecules, a product of biological evolution mindlessly and persistently sifting towards ever-more complex reproductive strategies. Consciousness is an emergent phenomenon, but no consistent rules govern its behavior, and in fact the very notion of a “being” as a unified whole appears to be largely illusory. It is no more bound to obey the axioms of Cartesian dualistic metaphysics than a soda machine.
That’s not to say that nothing can be known at all about how humans tend to behave, just that it can’t be reasoned to, at least not with sufficient accuracy. Empirical psychology and neuroscience, though still far from perfected disciplines, offer the most promising windows into human - and thus economic - behavior, yet these things are apparently rejected by the Austrian school, or simply not considered, their basis contradictory to what has already been decided cannot be otherwise."
Aside from the author’s inabillty to separate what follows from the structure of human action(Praxeology), from what explanations we can categorise for them to act in a certain way(Psychology), is he wilfully denying the purposefulness of his own behaviour? Is there no way we can establish whether his response is anything more than the complex consequences of a bubbling soda machine?
Are there any other contradictions, or am I just hopping around nothing? Do you think he makes any good points/criticisms?
I think when push comes to shove, I’ve found many of the participants at Science Forums are essentially historicists with their outlook to theoretical economics and “establishment knows better” interventionists with regard to policy.
I really need to get back to my work and stop this forum thread addiction!