Ok, first off, I’d like to preface this with the statement that I am not a Keynesian, nor am I even remotely sympathetic towards its ends/means/causes. That said, there’s a few arguments regarding “stimulation” that I’m having a bit of issue debunking, in my mind, though as per usual, I’m likely overlooking the obvious.
First one: Taking money from the “incredibly wealthy” and giving a bit to the bottom rung (note, I realize this is immoral, I’m speaking strictly from an economic perspective here): it is typically argued that taking, say, $2,000 (we’ll assume a 7% overhead for the government…haha!) from all households who make $250,000 (or more) then giving $100 to every household making $25,000 or less is more likely to stimulate the economy because the $25,000 household is likely to have less disposable income than the household making $250,000 (or more)–who is likely just sitting on that $1,866 each year, anyway. What am I missing here? Even assuming away overhead, I can’t see this being any more than a neutral; but the point does remain–it does seem more likely that those who making $25,000 (or less) will be more likely to spend that $100 than the household making $250,000 (or more) . Again, what am I missing?
Second one: Assuming the above does, in fact, have a negative effect on the economy effect on the economy, what about deficit spending? I realize that issuing debt that is bougt by a domestic entity will crowd out private investment, therefore lowering what the standard of living would have otherwise been; that said, there are two objections to this, it seems–the first being that it could be calculate the proper amount of debt to taken on to provide enough stimulus to negate the “crowding out” effect by those who would likely spend their money in the economy, therefore alleviating “the poor” or even creating a “net positive” boost to the economy. The second obection is that if the debt issued is purchased by a foreign entity, it doesn’t crowd out investment at all, therefore, as long as the debt is purchased by a foriegn country/individual, it’s not “crowding out” anything and therefore a net gain to the economy.
Again, I’d like to stress that I’m not a Keynesian and that I’m not attempting to debunk, derail, or 'cause conflict here; I’m merely inquiring so I can better understand the fallacies of Keynesian economics.