Does polylogism refute Marxism? After all, Marx was bourgeoisie, not proletariat.
Good question. Marx himself never addressed this issue since many of his humanist works didn’t come out until the early 20th century. However when they did, the justification for how Marx was able to dodge this dilemma was ‘well Marx was an intellectual and intellectuals float above the class conflict’
This reminds me of the commies in the 19th century who indulged sex, wine, etc., but it didn’t mean anything to them because they were beyond it, yet their followers were sinners for engaging in any of it.