On prices and taxes.

I have a question about prices and taxes.

Let’s say that government cuts taxes by 10%, then people believe that prices should fall by 10%, same thing might happen with rising costs, if costs rise by X% there should be a X% increasement (approximately) in price.

I can’t figure out if this really happens because, if prices are determined by supply and demand, and those willing to pay (or not) according to their subjective valorations, then prices should not be moving if a there’s a change in taxes or costs because they are not fixed to those factors, but to subjective valorations and supply and demand

Am I right?

Then, why people say that if taxes are being raised, goods will be more expensive, or the same with costs. If they are, people will stop buying, o price was too low before.

Are the effects more related to those who are at the margin, meaning this those who won’t buy that product if price is increased, and generally this are the poorer? What effect will bring this decrease in demand, but raise in price to business profits?

thanks!

Yes. For example, if the government were to cut only taxes which were being sent out as foreign aid, prices domestically would actually rise since individuals now have additional money to spend but there is only the same amount of goods and services in the economy that were there before.

Well, the general effect of government spending is subsidization of one sector at the expense of other sectors. “At the expense” means increased prices in the unsubsidized sectors to pay for the subsidized sectors. So, cutting taxes will usually cause prices to rise in the subsidized sectors whose subsidies have been cut and fall in all other sectors.

Clayton -

First, the change in price that results from a change in costs will depend on the relative elasticities of supply and demand. A 10% tax cut will only lead to a 10% fall in prices if we are dealing with a competitve market where demand is totally ineasltic.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tax_incidence

As for the second part of your question, you say that price is determined by subjective valuations and should not be impacted by changes in costs. I think this is a situation where if you say “subjective” too many times your eyes go cross. [:P] Rothbard notes in Chapter 4 of MES that sellers trade away their products for money because they value the things they can purchase with that money more than the product they are selling. That is the subjective part. But that doesn’t mean they don’t care about costs. If it costs them more to produce that product, then they will have less money left over after the sale to buy what ever they want. So why would the same amount of product at the same price if they getting less value from the transaction? Instead, in order to get them to produce as much as they were producing before costs went up, buyers will have to pay sellers a higher price per unit. Make sense?

It might be easier to think about it from another direction that may be more familiar. Assume you are making $100 per hour at your job working 40 hours a week, when all of a sudden the government slaps a 90% income tax on you. Now you’re only taking $10 per hour. You income has fallen by 3600 per week. Do you think you would still work as much or as hard as you did before the tax? If an employer wanted to make you work as much or as hard as you did before, wouldn’t they have to pay you more to do so?

Hopefully this clears things up.

So, if taxes are being raised, then I will raise the price of what I produce, or I will stop producing that product.

Thanks to both for your replies.

A request to the OP. Please let me know if this answers your q satisfactorily.