spending on consumer goods declines, as money is redirected towards future production (savings/investment in capital goods production)
in the short term, the factories churning out consumer goods still churn out consumer goods, the market clears at lower nominal prices for these goods.
without wage rates changing nominally(at least at first), the income of a wage earner buys more consumer goods (as the price has fallen).
a worker now gets income of more goods at their contracted wages than previously.
an entrepeneur looking at the costs of keeping his labourers hired in terms of ‘real cost’ rather than ‘nominal cost’ sees, that he is paying his workers ‘equivalent to’ a larger amount of consumer goods than ever before, at the previous nominal rate. it seems to him that labour is relatively more expensive than it used to be.
I suppose your question concerns why the same analysis does not apply to capital goods and their rents, i.e.
without rents on capital goods changing nominally, the income of a capitalist who rents out capital goods, is capable of purchasing more consumer goods (as their price has fallen), a capitalist now gets income of more consumer goods at their previous rental rates
an entrepeneur looking at the costs of keeping his machines rented in terms of ‘real cost’ rather than ‘nominal cost’ sees that he is paying the capitalists a larger amount of consumer goods than ever before at the previous nominal rate. it seems to him that capital goods are relatively more expensive than they used to be.
but then again, this situation obtains because consumers where redirecting funds away from short term consumption to longer term consumption, i.e investment in capital . this has led to a relative increase in the availability of capital. whereas if the population is stable the availability of labour has remained unchanged.
so perhaps the answer is there, that since the supply of capital has been expanded whereas the supply of labour has not, even though both capital and labour is more ‘expensive’ due to greater purchasing power of money, labour is the relatively more expensive, since the supply has not grown as has the supply of capital .
now soon enough, capitalists try to substitute labour with capital, bidding up the price of capital as they purchase it to fit into their productive processes, but soon enough the capital bought in will have increased the productivity of labour, and so the virtous cycle can continue?
I would love to be more knowledgable and authoritative on this. I think I have proved to myself in trying to explain DeSoto’s writing, that I understand less economics than sometimes I think I do…
I would thank anyone who pointed out fallacies or innacurracies in my ideas, as I really want to figure out the source of any confusions I may have.