Sorry if this is a really naive question. I heard this argument another week and was wondering how Austrians respond to it.
Basically, the argument said that in the major corporations investing stockholders’ money, the risk/reward ratio is skewed in favor of the CEOs, because the CEOs take a chunk of the profit in case their investment strategy works out, but if it falls through, all the shareholders share the losses equally. (Or at least, “more equally” than in the case of a profit.)
So, even in the cases when a CEO may lose his job if his risky strategy fails, if it wins, he will double his salary. On the other hand, the ratio of risk to reward is much more skewed towards the risk for the stockholders. This leads to the CEOs taking on much more risky projects/investment strategies than they would if there was no such skew.
The person who told me this gave me two examples: first, he said, yes, the whole housing crisis was caused (as the libertarians claim) through the government’s efforts of making housing loans much easier than they should’ve been and skewing the real risks of investing in the loan business. But then, even when the investors knew the risks, they still went ahead with it, because they are much more risk-prone than they would be if they were investing “their own” money.
Second, he gave an example of BP. They made a stupid decision, he said, by rushing to finish something-or-other, and as a result this snafu in the Gulf happened. Now, the losses for the snafu are shared equally by all stockholders, but in case the gamble worked out, the CEOs would take proportionally a greater chunk of the profits than the rest of the stockholders.
This reality, he said, argues for the necessasity of regulations of what sort of things investors can or cannot do.
I am wondering whether the picture he paints is accurate, and even if it is, what the response of a libertarian economist to the argument would be.
Thanks…