Recently published in econlog :
http://econlog.econlib.org/archives/2011/01/nick_rowe_vs_sc.html
I am really perplexed by Bill Woolsey arguments. Is quantity of money really “the” problem ? I always think that price-wage flexibility could clear the market.
It isn’t really that complicated.
Suppose there are price floors on all product prices.
Wages, on the other hand, can be cut.
The quantity of money falls in half.Spending falls. Firms cut production to match sales. There is no continuing flow of production beyond the flow of spending. There may be surpluses in the sense that desired sales are greater than purchases, but actual production doesn’t exceed purchases.
Firms are producing less so they reduce new hires and layoff people. Employment falls and unemployment rises. There are actually people looking for work.
Assuming money wages didn’t rise in the face of this mass unemployment, the real wage is unchanged.
There was no higher real wage to cause higher unemployment.Suppose money wages fall in the face of the massive unemployment. While the firms would have lower costs and would be motivated to sell more, they cannot sell more because people won’t buy. (The price floors prohibit them from cutting prices.)
Now, the lower real wages might cause people to want to work less. And, eventually, firms might shift to techniques that use more labor and less other resources. So, employment might actually increase. The unemployment rate might drop.
Monetary disequilibrium theorists would say that the problem was the drop in the quantity of money or the price floor. The problem was never that real wages were too high and needed to drop.
Now, remember that wages are a prices–the prices of labor. We all know that. If we consider a scenario where all prices, including wages, are free to drop, the problem is still that either prices have not fallen enough or the nominal quantity of has fallen and remains low.
If all prices, including money wages were perfectly flexible, then there would be no problem. And at no point would real wages fall. Prices and wages would fall in proportion. There was never a reason for real wages to fall. They were never too high.
If all prices (including wages) were equally sticky, then they would all fall pretty much in proportion. Output would be depressed until they fall enough, but at no point would real wages be too high, despite the unemployment of labor. This could all occur with firms keeping producion matching sales so that there is no inventory buildup.
If some prices are more sticky than other prices, then the relative prices of the more flexible ones will fall. While the normal situation would be that they should contract output, that really doesn’t work in this situation. The problem would need to be that their selling prices are falling faster than the prices of inputs. Anyway, these relative prices rise again once the stickier prices catch up, dropping the needed amount.
It is possible that some product prices are more sticky than some types of labor. That some product prices are more flexible than some types of labor. Some wage rates relative to some product prices might might rise and others might fall. And then they will reverse. The relative prices of goods with more sticky prices rise and then fall. The relative prices of goods with more flexible prices fall and then rise.
But the “problem” isn’t that goods with sticky prices have high relative prices.
I think it is realistic that most wage rates are more sticky than most product prices, so that the real wages in the adjustment process rise and as wages catch up (in a downward direction) real wages fall.But the problem isn’t that real wages are too high. And, of course, lower money wages with unchanged goods prices (which lowers real wages) would not solve the problem!
The solution is to avoid decreasing the quantity of money to start with. Or, if it does decrease to get it back up as soon as possible.
And, of course, changes in the demand to hold money cause the same problem.
And there is another refutation of wage flexibility (and Say’s law) :
http://cowles.econ.yale.edu/news/bewley/tfb_00-02_wages.htm
Mr Bewley concludes that employers resist pay cuts largely because the savings from lower wages are usually outweighed by the cost of denting workers’ morale: pay cuts hit workers’ standard of living and lower their self-esteem. Falling morale raises staff turnover and reduces productivity.
Does Bewley’s argument make any sense ? If people refuse to work hard, they become unemployed, then they will die from illness and starvation. So they accept lower wage and work harder : there is no glut. Am I wrong ?