So I’m trying to understand the Objectivist POV on sense perception, but I’m having some trouble here. I was reading Leonard Peikoff’s book about Objectivism, and in it, he stated that our sense perceptions are correct as an axiom.
How can this be? If humans can have dreams and hallucinations where they can see, touch, and even smell and taste figments, how can we know for sure that the “physical” world around us is actually physical and not just a kind of dream or hallucination?
Isn’t it possible that we’re just a bunch of brain cells in a petri dish somewhere? I’m not saying that that’s necessarily true, but that it is impossible to prove beyond doubt the existence of the world and the universe as we know it.
As for Objectivist ethics, I don’t quite understand why we should follow our own “rational self interest.” As I understand it, Rand’s argument was that since survival/life is a universal value, we should follow it as well, which leads us to rational self interest as the primary ethical goal. However, isn’t this just a naturalistic fallacy? Only because all organisms try to survive, does that mean we should do the same?
I understand that it is rational to act in your own self interest, but I don’t understand how it is ethical. In other words, it makes sense that one should improve oneself, but it doesn’t make sense why not doing so would be unethical.
Furthermore, doesn’t Rand’s ethics depend on her epistemology/metaphysics? If one cannot prove that the physical world, and therefore the organisms within it, exist, can one really say that we should follow our own self interest because it is, in a sense, a universal value?
So wouldn’t a more rational approach to ethics try to determine if there is some basis for ethics a priori instead of a posteriori?
Please correct me if I’m wrong in anything I’ve written, and please help me understand the Objectivist view on senses. Thanks. ![]()